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Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA FM Exams › Bad debt in Factoring
I am having a problem calculating savings of bad debts so my question is that could you please tell me what is the correct % for saving of bad debts? Is it 3% or 2%?
Isn’t that correct the difference between these two %age would be the saving of bad debt such as 700,000 x 1% = 7000?
[Question]
Velmin Co has a turnover of $700,000. Receivable days are currently 48 despite the
company only offering 30-days’ credit and bad debts are currently 3% of turnover. Velmin
Co finances its receivables using its overdraft which has an annual interest cost of 8%.
Velmin is considering the use of a factor.
The factor would charge 4% of turnover for a non?recourse agreement and would expect to reduce receivable days to 34 and bad debts to 2%. The factor would lend Velmin 75% of the outstanding receivables and would charge Velmin 1% above their current overdraft interest cost. It is anticipated that using the factor would reduce administration costs by $6,000 per annum.
Required:
Evaluate whether or not Velmin Co should use the factor.
It is non-recourse factoring and so the company will end up suffering no bad debts and will therefore save 3%.
I do explain the difference between with-recourse and non-recourse factoring in my free lectures.
If it were with recourse then the company would have saved 1% (3 – 2). Is that right?
Correct 🙂
