Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA FR Exams › Associate Accounting
- This topic has 6 replies, 2 voices, and was last updated 10 years ago by MikeLittle.
- AuthorPosts
- November 1, 2014 at 12:28 pm #207089
How do I calculate post acqn movement as well as net assets for the following;
Xplc subscribed for the shares in Yplc on 1st August 2013. Yplc made a profit after tax of 20,000 for the year ended 31st July and paid a dividend of 1000.
Given in the statement of financial position of Y plc as at 31st July 2014
Share Capital 25,000
Retained Earnings 19000Thank you.
November 1, 2014 at 3:14 pm #207107Post acq retained is $19,000
I assume that you appreciate the subtlety of the word “subscribed” indicating that this is not a purchase of share on the open market. This is a company issuing shares upon the date of its incorporation (the date of the company’s birth)
So all the balance on retained earnings is post acquisition
OK?
November 1, 2014 at 4:33 pm #207113I didnt quite understand.
But from what I did
X’s share in associate will be 22%*19000?November 1, 2014 at 4:59 pm #207114Also, do we have to account for parents share of dividends paid by the associate?
i.e 22% of 1000?November 6, 2014 at 6:47 am #207940How can you suddenly introduce 22%!!!!!!??????
Investment in associate for the balance sheet will be “Cost of investment + 22% x post acq retained (that looks like 19,000 to me so long as you have given me full information) less any impairment (but there doesn’t appear to be any)
In the consolidated profit or loss, the group’s share of the associate profit after tax will be included as a pre-tax item and the dividend from the associate will be ignored (not included as investment income, nor as anything else)
Ok?
November 6, 2014 at 6:51 am #207941Sorry, I assumed I mentioned 22% in the first post. Sorry for the inconvenience.
But thank you!
Finally understood it!November 6, 2014 at 6:56 am #207943You’re welcome
- AuthorPosts
- You must be logged in to reply to this topic.