- This topic has 1 reply, 2 voices, and was last updated 6 years ago by .
Viewing 2 posts - 1 through 2 (of 2 total)
Viewing 2 posts - 1 through 2 (of 2 total)
- You must be logged in to reply to this topic.
OpenTuition recommends the new interactive BPP books for March 2025 exams.
Get your discount code >>
Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA FM Exams › Arriving at Annuity (PV / df)
Question:
PV at 10%
0 Cost $1.500,000 in 5 years * df 0.621 = $ 931,500
0-4 Annuity * (1+df @ 10%) = $ 931,500
0-4 Annuity = $ 931,500 / (1+df @ 10%)
0-4 Annuity = $ 931,500 / (1+3.170)
0-4 Annuity = $ 931,500 / 4.170 = 223,381
Why is there a 1+ on the discount factor? …the df 0-4 at 10% +1? why +1?
this is revision kit question 104 answer on page 127.
Thanks in advance.
The annuity factor applies to flows from time 1 onwards.
So for 1 to 4 you would multiply by the 4 year annuity factor to get the PV.
The PV of a flow at time 0 is 1 x the flow, so the factor for flows from 0 to 4 is 1 plus the 4 year annuity factor.