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Aren't the FX quote conventions reversed?

Forums › ACCA Forums › ACCA FM Financial Management Forums › Aren't the FX quote conventions reversed?

  • This topic has 1 reply, 2 voices, and was last updated 8 years ago by AvatarJohn Moffat.
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  • November 18, 2017 at 12:31 pm #416433
    Avatarpatrikos
    Participant
    • Topics: 2
    • Replies: 3
    • ☆

    You say at 07:50 in the Foreign Exchange Risk Management lecture that a $/£ rate of 1.6 means “1.6 of the first currency ($) = 1 of the second currency (£)”.

    According to Wikipedia, “The quotation EUR/USD 1.3225 means that 1 Euro will buy 1.3225 US dollars”. In other words: 1 unit of the FIRST currency = 1.3225 units of the SECOND currency.

    Isn’t this the reverse of your definition?

    November 18, 2017 at 7:09 pm #416483
    AvatarJohn Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54846
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    I am not interested in what Wikipedia says – what I explain in the lectures is what is needed for the exam and is the way that the examiner presents exchange rates 🙂

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  • The topic ‘Aren't the FX quote conventions reversed?’ is closed to new replies.

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