Hi,
Here's my question:
What is the reason current assests in the CGU are not subject to impairment? Any simple example of with value can explain the principle(s) held behind?
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Allocation of Impairment Loss
9y ago#1Because current assets are always valued at the lower of cost and net realisable value and that, if you think about it, satisfies the requirement of recoverable amount
OK?
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