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advanced idle time variance

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA PM Exams › advanced idle time variance

  • This topic has 3 replies, 2 voices, and was last updated 8 years ago by John Moffat.
Viewing 4 posts - 1 through 4 (of 4 total)
  • Author
    Posts
  • January 21, 2017 at 2:32 pm #368688
    sana101
    Member
    • Topics: 29
    • Replies: 8
    • ☆

    Sir
    In your lecture while calculating the effective standard cost per hour; you said that we will be paying them at $5.70 but it will cost us $6 for every hour worked so
    a) is it going to cost us $6 per hour because we will be paying them for 8hrs while they only work for 7.6hrs?
    b) And why will we be paying them $5.70 while it is costing us $6?

    i am really confused here

    January 21, 2017 at 3:54 pm #368732
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54705
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    If we pay them for 8 hours then we will pay them in total 8 x $5.70 = $45.60 (The question says that the pay rate is $5.70).

    However of those 8 hours, 0.4 hours (5%) will be idle – time we are paying them for but when they are not working.
    So they will only be working 7.6 hours, but we will still be paying them $45.60.

    So the cost for each working hour = 45.60 / 7.6 = $6

    January 23, 2017 at 5:45 am #368917
    sana101
    Member
    • Topics: 29
    • Replies: 8
    • ☆

    I am sorry sir but i am still not able to understand the difference between the two.
    Could you please explain with a tiny example?

    January 23, 2017 at 7:13 am #368927
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54705
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    But I gave you a tiny example in my previous reply, and I work through the example in my free lecture!!
    I assume that you downloaded the lecture notes before you watched the lecture, and therefore had the example in front of you.
    Work through what I wrote in my previous reply again, slowly.

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