Dear Mr Tutor,
Why when revaluating a previous depreciated asset, we have to first reverse the accumulated depreciation provision, and any difference between the revaluation surplus and this depreciation is then added to the asset at cost ?
Many thanks!
Why when revaluating a previous depreciated asset, we have to first reverse the accumulated depreciation provision, and any difference between the revaluation surplus and this depreciation is then added to the asset at cost ?
Many thanks!
