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Accounting for overhead

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA MA – FIA FMA › Accounting for overhead

  • This topic has 5 replies, 2 voices, and was last updated 5 years ago by John Moffat.
Viewing 6 posts - 1 through 6 (of 6 total)
  • Author
    Posts
  • October 13, 2019 at 8:04 pm #549072
    Ha
    Participant
    • Topics: 54
    • Replies: 54
    • ☆☆

    Question 7a.15 from BPP practice book

    Why don’t we calculate overhead for department Q after reapportionment ?
    Thank you

    October 14, 2019 at 6:48 am #549321
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54662
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    Because the question only asks for the overheads for department P !!

    October 14, 2019 at 7:14 am #549338
    Ha
    Participant
    • Topics: 54
    • Replies: 54
    • ☆☆

    Question 7a.23 from BPP practice

    When we recharge canteen . The equation will be 83.520 * 45% ( mixing Dept ) = 37.584 and 83.520 * 40% (stirring ) = 33.408

    But in the answer shown ” 44216 ” and ” 39304 ”
    How can they have that number ?

    2- can you talk lil bit about “direct method” and “step down method” , you haven’t mentioned it in your lecturer .

    Thank you Mr John

    October 14, 2019 at 12:52 pm #549438
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54662
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    I assume you understood my reply to you about 7a.15. (since you have made no comment!!)

    The direct method is as explained in the answer to 7a.22. The service departments are apportioned directly to the production departments and not to other service departments. However this is not strictly correct and is therefore rare in the exam.

    The step-down method is the reciprocal method that I show in my lectures, and this is the normal way. The BPP answer to 7a.23 is wrong – they started correctly, but then should have continued apportioning reciprocally (or used the equations).

    October 14, 2019 at 1:21 pm #549449
    Ha
    Participant
    • Topics: 54
    • Replies: 54
    • ☆☆

    Yes . I do understand 7a.15 now ( as I thought i have to calculate all departments all the time like what you shown in your lecture ) .
    Thank you for the reply of question 7a23 …

    For question 7a26 .

    They said ” no overhead is reapportioned to service department Y , so the balance of overhead should be reapportioned 40/90 and 50/90 ” ( which I understand they reapportioned by direct method )

    Assuming department Y still need to be reapportioned , then I will use ” step down method ” ? Mean 600* 40% and 600* 50% ?
    Is it correct ?

    Thank you Mr John

    October 14, 2019 at 2:26 pm #549472
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54662
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    Yes – that is correct 🙂

  • Author
    Posts
Viewing 6 posts - 1 through 6 (of 6 total)
  • The topic ‘Accounting for overhead’ is closed to new replies.

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