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I had done f9 in December and passed on the first attempt, to be honest, it is a very easy paper, I found the f9 paper to be much better than f5 also, this is my 3rd attempt giving f5.
Good luck for f9 ! 🙂@mika84 said:
You found both operational and planning? As far as I remember, there was a change in price for material (material usage) and change in hrs necessary to sew in a new design (labour efficiency). How were the planning variances derived?Yes. Both operational and planning for material usage variance.ill tell you how i did it.For planning,i took 2 metres as budgeted input per output and 2.2 metres for revised input per output. Actual input -24000 units. So 2*24000=48000(budgeted usage) 2.2*24000=52800 (revised usage) . So planning variance- 4800metres adverse.( Now on to operational variance.( Revised usage- actual usage) actual usage was more than revised usage.it was around 54000 something metres.there also you get adverse. Once you get the adverse figures multiply it with standard rate. For both planning and variance.
That’s how i did it. I may be totally wrong. But that’s my answerAbout mpq1 I think the lowest cost stage is declining. In graph the line was the profit line. I can’t remember any more
nothing is strange acca makes it difficult for everyone to pass ” long stories ” you should read to arrive at material and labor variances why? it is not about nuclear physics it only accounting why it has to be so complicated? also the mcq s are long too does TPAR for example need all that ? our center desks are very small to the extent that you can not place all your things on it I mean the two papers and other things you need> That really made me mad – the second question of the ppls bank is OK yet i started doing it only few minutes before the final whistle so … i think there are many things in life better than keep taking and failing these lengthy exams of NASA for me at least .
see ? thats what I.m telling it is not a matter of understanding the subject it self it the way that ACCA test people – knowledge is widespread everywhere and does not need a genius to get it – just write EV and hundreds of sites will come to telling you what is it and how to get it done and work>
1. Maturity(maximum profit at maturity stage, so assumed there will be t minimum vc 😉 )
2. Profit (there will be a fixed cost, at 0 output). So loss.
3. 300adverse
4. I think I got 4
5.i think Operational gearing means contribution/pbit, ie how fc will cover with current contribution.@gasior said:
I got the same answer. Did exactly the same.Me too
well, it was harder than the past papers which i used for practice.
qn1. Growth
Qn2. profit
Qn3. 300 adversesection B, what was the optimum output of necklaces? i got 450…does anyone remember their answer?
In Q31 accountant hadn’t updated standarts and as I remembered, only updated budget may be called revised budget. So I didn’t break it into planning and operational variances. This is maybe my mistake, but anyway my material price variance will be the correct)) 9600
@surajnair said:
Yes. Both operational and planning for material usage variance.ill tell you how i did it.For planning,i took 2 metres as budgeted input per output and 2.2 metres for revised input per output. Actual input -24000 units. So 2*24000=48000(budgeted usage) 2.2*24000=52800 (revised usage) . So planning variance- 4800metres adverse.( Now on to operational variance.( Revised usage- actual usage) actual usage was more than revised usage.it was around 54000 something metres.there also you get adverse. Once you get the adverse figures multiply it with standard rate. For both planning and variance.
That’s how i did it. I may be totally wrong. But that’s my answerI did usage material variance:
24000 * 2 * 3 =144000 (Budgeted)
24000 * 2,2 * 3 = 158400 (Revised)
54600 * 3 = 163800 (Actual)
This gave me 14400 Adverse for planning, and 5400 Adverse for operiationalLabour efficiency variance:
24000 * 0,13 * 12 = 37440 (Budgeted)
24000* 0,16 * 12 = 46080 (Revised)
3840 * 12 = 46080 (Actual)
This gave me 8640 Adverse for planning, and 0 for operiational.Traditional efficiency variance for labour:
3840 * 12 = 46080
24000 * 0,13 * 12 = 37440
This gave me 8640 Adverse for labour.
I don’t now if that is right but that what I did in qc 31.Hi,
Huma i got 450 for necklace question but in whatsapp group theyre saying its wrong as bottleneck resources was only 2ppl for cutting.
my answers were like this:
– vc less in – decline stage(less items sold means less vc) – though now i feel that vc per unit would never change, only total vc would change)
– p/v chart – profit line
– variance qsn 300 F
– OH highest in total cost qsn – i selected 2 only
– environmental cost – 650(guessed)
– throughput one i got 1.4 and the other 2.0
– last balance scorecard i showed increase/decrease in percentage from actual/target and then commented how good or bad it was for the company. no idea if it was the correct way of doing it
– variance i just calculated material price/usage and labour efficiancyThis alarms me. Was it that the accountant hadn’t updated the standard cost card, hence there was 3 different figures ie budgeted actual and revised if he had updated the cost card there would’ve only been budgeted and actual?
@anano said:
In Q31 accountant hadn’t updated standarts and as I remembered, only updated budget may be called revised budget. So I didn’t break it into planning and operational variances. This is maybe my mistake, but anyway my material price variance will be the correct)) 9600See above comment
@anano said:
In Q31 accountant hadn’t updated standarts and as I remembered, only updated budget may be called revised budget. So I didn’t break it into planning and operational variances. This is maybe my mistake, but anyway my material price variance will be the correct)) 9600I think this could be right, why else would they mention that the accountant was off sick for 2 months and hadn’t updated the budgets? Just seems 7 marks is a lot for 2 standard variances but the logic of what your speaking sounds correct
I remember I got
1.maturity
2.profit
3.300FTPAR was 1.4 and then max amount of necklace was 450 – it had most contribution per scarce resource so should produce for max demand. But who knows, MCQs were so tricky, wouldn’t be surprised if I got even the easiest ones wrong!
in 32 – I feel like there must be more to it than just comparing against target and saying how this relates to values? I did that but also mentioned that they should balance it with their financial targets, I mean they overspent on community service and installed more talking cash points etc. – was this necessary? Great they’re trying to be a good corporate citizen but it’s all about balance right?
31 was a disaster for me. So much information, couldn’t figure out what figures to choose
Does anybody remember which was the third long mc question?One was througput,the second was pricing decision…..the last mc question about not improving throughput what was the answer?
i remember choosing option B cuz the rest were ways of increasing tpar – like increasing selling price, decreasing cost, decreasing expenditure – option b was increasing 1 more person for cutting i think. cant recall much though
@micksymooresy16 said:
I think this could be right, why else would they mention that the accountant was off sick for 2 months and hadn’t updated the budgets? Just seems 7 marks is a lot for 2 standard variances but the logic of what your speaking sounds correctAnyone any thoughts on this?
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