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ACCA F3 Receivable

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA PM Exams › ACCA F3 Receivable

  • This topic has 1 reply, 2 voices, and was last updated 12 years ago by AvatarJohn Moffat.
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  • July 29, 2013 at 8:03 am #134378
    Avatarfuturedark
    Member
    • Topics: 8
    • Replies: 0
    • ☆

    Dear Tutor,
    1. An increase in an allowance for receivables of 8000 has been treated as a reduction in the allowance in the financial statements. Which of the following explains the resulting effects?
    Ans: Net profit overstaed by 16000, receivables overstated by 16000

    Could you pelase help me to explain the above question?
    Thanks.

    July 29, 2013 at 9:36 am #134384
    AvatarJohn Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54839
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    Increasing the allowance should be shown as an expense in the income statement, which means less profit.

    However they have treated it as if it was a reduction in the allowance and so they will have shown it as a negative expense resulting in more profit.

    So……their profit is 8000 higher when it should be 8000 lower. This means that the profit they are showing is 16000 more than it actually should be – i.e. overstated.

    Similarly the receivables figure in the SOFP should be after subtracting the allowance and since they have reduced it instead of increasing it, they are subtracting an allowance which is 16000 less than it should have been. This means that the final receivables figure is 16000 more that it should be (i.e. overstated).

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