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Absorption cost statement

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA MA – FIA FMA › Absorption cost statement

  • This topic has 7 replies, 3 voices, and was last updated 10 years ago by John Moffat.
Viewing 8 posts - 1 through 8 (of 8 total)
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  • June 20, 2015 at 12:03 pm #258177
    alighere
    Participant
    • Topics: 47
    • Replies: 67
    • ☆☆

    Hi.

    I have noticed something when preparing the p&l statement under absorption costing fir which i need some assistance.

    After calculating the gross profit, we are supposed to calculate the under/over absorbed. However the way it is done is that the OAR is multiplied by the amount produced; not the amount actually sold. Why is that ?. The p&l only would show the amount sold accrued to the amount it took to produced the sold items. Shouldn’t the overheads absorbed be the OAR x the amount sold.

    June 20, 2015 at 2:24 pm #258189
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54701
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    The overheads absorbed will be the actual production x the overhead absorption rate.

    The actual sales are likely to be either higher or lower that the actual production, but the difference is accounting for by the change in the level of inventory (and the valuation of inventory includes fixed overheads at the OAR).

    It is difficult to explain in more detail in words. If you watch the free lectures on both marginal and absorption costing (and the reconciliation between them) then it should make sense.

    June 20, 2015 at 5:43 pm #258208
    alighere
    Participant
    • Topics: 47
    • Replies: 67
    • ☆☆

    Hi John. I did view your lecture, which subsequently brought me to this question:
    Maybe if I clarify my question, it would make more sense:

    The reason why the closing inventory is being stripped off from the COS is because you are accruing the amount sold vs the amount it took to produce the sold items, isnt it?

    However, the amount that is being added/subtracted as under/over absorbed (in Absorbtion costing statement) will be the same regardless of the amount sold. ie: given a number of combinations where 1000 units are produced and the amount sold ranges from 0-1000 units the amount taken as under/over absorbed will always remain the same, because it just depends on actual amount produced and actual o/h incurred. However, the amount that has been produced is clearly out of the picture in the p&l after the closing stock has been stripped off

    Isn’t it more reasonable to base the amount absorbed based on the amount sold rather than the amount produced

    June 20, 2015 at 11:00 pm #258222
    chanee23
    Participant
    • Topics: 4
    • Replies: 1
    • ☆

    @alighere said:
    Hi.

    I have noticed something when preparing the p&l statement under absorption costing fir which i need some assistance.

    After calculating the gross profit, we are supposed to calculate the under/over absorbed. However the way it is done is that the OAR is multiplied by the amount produced; not the amount actually sold. Why is that ?. The p&l only would show the amount sold accrued to the amount it took to produced the sold items. Shouldn’t the overheads absorbed be the OAR x the amount sold.

    June 21, 2015 at 10:13 am #258397
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54701
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    Alighere:

    No. I perfectly understood your question, but I repeat – the amount absorbed is always based on the actual production.

    Maybe this will convince you:

    Suppose the budget overheads were $200,000 and the budget production was 10,000. So the OAR is $20 per unit. Suppose materials and labour are $30 per unit. So the total standard cost is $50. The selling price is $80.

    Suppose there is no opening inventory. The actual production 25,000 units. The actual sales are 20,000, and therefore the closing inventory is 5,000.

    The revenue is 20,000 x 80 = 1,600,000.
    The variable cost of production is 25,000 x $30 = 750,000
    The fixed overheads (by definition) should stay at 200.000
    Therefore the cost of production should be 950,000.
    The closing inventory is valued at 5,000 x $50 = 250,000
    Therefore the cost of sales should be 950,000 – 250,000 = 700,000
    Therefore the profit should be 1,600,000 – 700,000 = 900,000

    However, using absorption costing we say the profit per unit should be 80 – 50 = $30 per unit. Therefore a total profit of 20,000 x 30 = 600,000

    Why is this wrong? It is because in arriving at 600,000 we have effectively charged/absorbed overheads of 25,000 units produced at $20 per unit = 500,000.
    But the fixed overheads should really stay at 300,000.
    So we have over-charged/over-absorbed fixed overheads by 500,000 – 200,000 = 300,000.
    So we adjust the absorption profit of 600,000 by the over absorption of 300,000 to arrive at the correct profit of 900,000.

    June 21, 2015 at 10:13 am #258398
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54701
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    chanee23:

    I don’t understand why you simply copy a question that I have already replied to!!

    June 21, 2015 at 11:41 am #258410
    alighere
    Participant
    • Topics: 47
    • Replies: 67
    • ☆☆

    Thanks John

    June 21, 2015 at 6:35 pm #258432
    John Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54701
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    You are welcome 🙂

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