Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA FR Exams › 81 Pinto
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- November 24, 2010 at 7:11 pm #46206
See BPP exam kits the answers of number 81 Pinto, see the Income from Investment property where does this come from: (60-20) ???
2. the dividend paid where does 5 come from why has he multiply by 5 ???PLEASE REPLY
November 25, 2010 at 11:02 am #71384AnonymousInactive- Topics: 0
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1-
step-1 )find the no. of shares at year end.. using parv value..(1000/0.20 cents)step-2)Dididend is 0.03 cents per share PAID on 1st-Jan-o8…….(shares at 31-march-2008= 1000sh /0.20c (parvalue/share) *0.03/share = 150 (‘000) paid this yr..
2-look at the comparatives of Investment property @ the top of the Assets
it shows an inclrese of 20 (420-400) in the investment propoerty this yr..
since theres no purchase or same in notes to F/S note.. its INCREASE in Fair Value.. under Fair Value Model.November 25, 2010 at 8:36 pm #71385Is that your problem sorted out, or is it still unclear?
November 27, 2010 at 5:18 am #71386Yes I understand but why has he done 60-20 ???
PLEASE REPLYNovember 27, 2010 at 9:24 am #7138720 is fair value increase, non-cash so it has to be deducted
November 27, 2010 at 11:01 am #71388because 20 is the gain in value – see the movement in the SofFP – and 60 is the total I/S income related to investment property. Therefore, 60 – 20 must represent investment property income received – as rents. The 20 increase is not a cash flow, and therefore needs to be deducted fro m the 60 to arrive at the cash flow amount
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