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Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA AFM Exams › 75 biplton
in cash flows , why the terminal value is 6200 * 1.08 power to 5 and not to the power 6 ?as there are 6 period!
Because it take one year to build. So the cost is payable in 1 years time and there are 5 years between then and 6 years time.
