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(Context): The BUYER failed to pay for 1st contract which led to termination of second contract by SELLER
the rationale given by SELLER for termination of 2nd contract was that since first contract wasn’t paid “credit worthiness is in doubt”Sir,
How is it justifiable? I mean if creditworthiness is in doubt it’s an IMPLIED ANTICIPATORY BREACH and it needs to be enquired and notified before any termination..And if buyer gives assurance about payment it can’t be terminated isn’t it?
In above the notice wasn’t given so how can it be cancelled without buyers discretion.?Hi Sourav,
Could you kindly send me a screenshot of the question.
Kind regards,
Vijay
How shall I send a screenshot..Is there a photo upload feature available?..Or shall I e-mail you
Reference:
Kaplan exam kit :
Under International business transaction:
284 Anton.
Pg 62..
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