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2019-3/6 SBR Question 1(c)

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA SBR Exams › 2019-3/6 SBR Question 1(c)

  • This topic has 1 reply, 2 voices, and was last updated 2 years ago by Stephen Widberg.
Viewing 2 posts - 1 through 2 (of 2 total)
  • Author
    Posts
  • October 26, 2022 at 9:40 am #670016
    Edm3362948
    Participant
    • Topics: 1
    • Replies: 1
    • ☆

    Dear sir/madam,

    I was confused about why the cumulative exchange gains on 30 September 20X6 are 80% of $8.2 plus $13.4. Because goodwill has been calculated using the fair value method on 1 January 20X2 which is dinar 42 million, why multiply by 80% again?
    I can understand why multiply 80% of $13.4 exchange gains, but isn’t $8.2 million already an 80% exchange gain? And why do NCI share exchange gains need 20% of $8.2? Since my opinion is when calculating the goodwill on 1 January 20X2 NCI was totally added into FV of consideration, why do we need to multiply the NCI percentage of exchange gain again?

    I’m waiting for your reply. Thanks a lot.

    October 27, 2022 at 9:44 am #670108
    Stephen Widberg
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 16
    • Replies: 3401
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    Please repost with thread header EXCHANGE DIFFERENCES and giving enough detail so that other users do not have to look at the original question.

    Many thanks

    PS I am assuming that you have watched our debrief of this question in our revision lectures.

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  • The topic ‘2019-3/6 SBR Question 1(c)’ is closed to new replies.

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