Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA AFM Exams › 2012 Jun Q3(a)
- This topic has 5 replies, 2 voices, and was last updated 10 years ago by John Moffat.
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- November 15, 2014 at 8:22 am #210135
dun understand the reason fixed rate of 3.761/4% is less than 3.8% four -year yield curve rate.3.8% is zero coupon bond?
November 15, 2014 at 12:54 pm #210199Zero coupon bonds pay no interest – the just give one return when they are repaid (they are repaid at a premium, which is effectively interest).
So, if you were only going to get one interest in 4 years time then you would want it to be equivalent to 3.8% per annum.
However, if you are getting interest each year, then you would want the amount in 1 years time to be whatever rate the yield curve gave for 1 year, you would want the amount in 2 years time to be equivalent to what the yield curve gave for 2 years, and so on.
Since we are talking about a fixed interest bond, then the fixed interest will be (in a sense) the average of each of those returns from the yield curve.
November 15, 2014 at 1:39 pm #210217Did I miss something in the question that has already stated the 3.8% yield curve bond is zero coupon bond?
Besides, is the yield curve that is the discounted factor equivalent to the interest rate of the bond? Thx!
November 15, 2014 at 3:39 pm #210241The yield curve is showing the return that a zero coupon bond will give for different periods of time.
November 16, 2014 at 10:29 am #210396Got it!thx!
November 16, 2014 at 4:26 pm #210464Great 🙂
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