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2010june question 2

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA AFM Exams › 2010june question 2

  • This topic has 1 reply, 2 voices, and was last updated 9 years ago by AvatarJohn Moffat.
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  • February 23, 2017 at 8:01 am #373776
    AvatarAnonymous
    Inactive
    • Topics: 16
    • Replies: 4
    • ☆

    Answer part iii I don’t understand the risk free rate could be taken as log 1.05 where doesitcomefrom

    February 23, 2017 at 9:56 am #373800
    AvatarJohn Moffat
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 57
    • Replies: 54845
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    Getting the risk free rate that way is not in the syllabus and is not relevant for this question – the risk free rate is 5% as per the question and that is what should have been used in the BSOP formula (as indeed it has been in the answer).

    (This question was set by the previous examiner who did do some very odd things 🙂 )

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