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12 2015 Examiner's report

Forums › Ask ACCA Tutor Forums › Ask the Tutor ACCA APM Exams › 12 2015 Examiner's report

  • This topic has 3 replies, 3 voices, and was last updated 9 years ago by Ken Garrett.
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    Posts
  • January 19, 2016 at 8:58 am #296172
    llmaqe
    Participant
    • Topics: 6
    • Replies: 59
    • ☆☆

    Question 1 had an EVA calculation and the debt:equity ratio was 100%. The examiner says many people got this wrong. Dos this mean ratio of 1:1?

    January 19, 2016 at 4:03 pm #296316
    Ken Garrett
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 10
    • Replies: 10583
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    Yes.

    If debt were 400k and equity 1000k, the D/E ratio would be 0.4 or 40%

    So, 100% means 1:1

    February 26, 2016 at 4:34 am #302103
    Shereen
    Member
    • Topics: 0
    • Replies: 3
    • ☆

    But why examiner answer is calculate based (1/2 × 16%) Im abit confuse for this Q1 EVA adjustment as well.. stated that Debt/Equity is 100%, so in the calculation on WACC isnt it should be =(1 × 16%) , why is (1/2 × 16%) ?????? Anyone could help? Would appreciated alot if someone could help.. thks

    February 26, 2016 at 8:46 am #302122
    Ken Garrett
    Keymaster
    • Topics: 10
    • Replies: 10583
    • ☆☆☆☆☆

    Because 100% D/E means 1:1 ie half debt, half equity in the capital makeup.

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