Forum Replies Created
- Posts
Thank ken, one more question can you tell me urgently that whether there are any new article and if not then can you please tell me when last article of SBL was issued?
Ohk ok then thank you sir. I just confused the swap method with the usual word swap ?
Thank you so much sir for your passions and explanation I must say you are an amazing tutor. sir just last thing it means we will apply formula in newimber after 3 years because constant growth from 4 years but in westparley constant growth is started after 4 years therefore we apply after 4 years formula right?
sir in this question nothing is mentioned that perpetuity will start at a later time as you said. Hence, my concern is simply how can I get it in exam whether I need to use this method or that as if I compare this question with westparley (mar 20) question nothing is different in respect to free cashflow information (except it is written 4 years onwards in this question and in westparley it is written that after 4 years the only I found is of onwards and after) may I assuming correctly?
sir but how can get it that this approach we need to use rather than the normal method???
Thank you so much sir.
Sir can you please guide me little more that if two forward rates given in a payment question and results in under-hedge so whether we have to convert that amount at higher forward rate to close the hedge???No sir actually i found it from kaplan study text and i still can’t understand how to find credit-adjusted effective interest rate is it talking about wacc which we were found in f9 through beta factor?
Yes sir you are right but sir i am still confused about why we did not minus unrealised profit from associate’s profit to find out p’s share of profit?
Here is reference from kaplan study text illustration 3:
W1: Investment in associate:
Cost. =200000
Share of post-acquisation profit
(30%×800000×6/12). =120000
Share of excess depreciation
(30%×((1.8m-1m)/10years×6/12) = (12000)
Impairment. (50000)
Investment in associate 2058000(W2)
Share of profit of associate:
P’s share of A’s profit after tax
(30%×800000×6/12). 120000
Impairment. (50000)
Share of excess depreciation
(30%×((1.8m-1m)/10years×6/12) =
(12000)
P’s share of purp. (30000)
Share of profit of associate=
28000
Sir so my question here is that why when calculating w1 why didn’t deduct unrealised profit from 800000 profit because this profit figure have unrealised profit.*I believe that I’m correct in saying that, although ‘15% of the shares issued’ is frequently quoted as the benchmark, the law also provides the same rights to the holders of shares conferring 15% of the voting power and, crucially in this case, 15% by number of the shareholders. In the case of D and C, C clearly represents 50% by number of the shareholders?*
but sir how it is possible that C have 50% shareholding because majority(75%) shareholders pass the resolution and cancels the class right
sir can you please elebrate this point?Sir there is a question in my book weather it should be (i)treated as reduction in expense. Or
(ii) it should be treated as other income
Which option should i choose?
