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Hi sir,
The auditor charges fees on the basis of the level of valuation, if he values the company’s asset over its normal level, he will get more returns accordingly, leading to self interest threat. I just wonder if my view may be correct in some extent.
PS:I have trouble understanding your view of Here there does not seem to be the idea of preparation followed by review.It is the deficiency found after delivery?so we choose external costs, am I right?
I think its company’s own fault-producing faulty products , so its an internal failure cost. I just wonder where I go wrong.
As far as I am concerned, warranty replacement costs are inernal failure costs.
Thank you , I ignored that P has recorded its investment in S at the cost of the immediate cash payment.
OK:)In fact, my teacher told us to practice papers from 2008 to 2010, but I am not sure. Now I will try to complete papers from 2010 to 2015. Thanks!
Dear sir,
I just do not want to waste your precious time, I do not dare to say the rest of your responses are redundant. My English is not good, hoping you understand.:)Hi sir,
One of my classmates told me where I went wrong and we settled the Q1:)Hi sir,
consolidated retained earnings=profit after tax (parent company)+retained earnings (parent co’s beginning …). I just wonder why it does not include Subsidiary’s retained earnings .Hi sir,
Is total comprehensive income attributable to owners of the parent =111600+2500-700+1000-400? I just wonder the reason why we do not calculate loss like this 400@6/12@75%, gain like this 1000@75%.Hi sir,
I am also confused about note ii, I just wonder the reason why the transferring does not make revenue & cost of sales decrease 4m by contrast with note iii.Thanks in advance.Thanks.
Christmas is approaching, early to wish you Merry Christmas! Best Regard!
