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Just to confirm, i do not need to actually remember the standard numbers/names for the international and english syllabuses as well?
Many thanks in advance
Also realise the F8 is based on international standards…probably should do INT syllabus?
Hi,
Just checking, the diagram tree was just multiplying 0.8 x 0.5 to get 0.4 for both low low and low high, am i right? Such that it totals 1 (0.2 high high +0.4 +0.4). Or is this wrong.
Thanks
YazanThis is in regards to your revision lecture. I assume I should always be cancelling the loan notes between the parent and sub?
Sorry I meant in regards to W4A! Apologies. I can see your understanding for W4B.
W4A nci SOFP is given as 4,800 but nci impairment of 100 has not been allocated to it. Why?
Please disregard point b)! I have seen my error – the impairment has indeed been allocated to the parent.
So, wny hasn’t the 20% impairment been allocated to W4B?
The first part makes sense. Thanks.
a) In terms of the second part, I now see the goodwill impairment in W4B. However, for W4A in the answer booklet I only see two lines: “At date of acquisition” of 4500 and “Post-acquisition from statement of profit or loss and other comprehensive income” of 300. Should not the goodwill impairment of 500 be allocated to this according to % (i.e., 500 x 0.2 = 100)?
(The 300 only reflects the 2000 profit x 9/12 (post acq) x 20%.)
b) In terms of W3 consoldiated retained earnings, looking at the answer paper I now cannot see a goodwill impairment % adjustment. In my pro forma, after I have worked out the Total consolidated retrained earnings for P and S and added them together, i have written that goodwill impairment % (500 x 0.8 = 400 in this case) should be substracted to attain the final total.
Could you help explain what I am missing please? Is it due to the fact that it is an admin expense that we do not split it? :s
Kind regards,
YazanI put operational but could be wrong. isnt VFM trying to find best deal? what was the definition again?
For the fwd hedge it was just the receivsble amount divided by the fwd rate.
For the money hedge it was the receivable divided by the foreign borrowing rate/2. Convert at spot and then multiply by dollar desposit rate/2.
Am I right here? I think that it what I did and ended up with money hedge – want to make sure logic is correct.
Hi guys,
Can i just check on how you did ABC?
Did you guys just apportion the costs to the numbers given i.e., 1/2.5 1.5/2.5 for first cost pool 24/48 etc for second cost pool and 1/5 and 4/5 for the meal costs?
Or was there something more to it?
Thanks
😀
I somewhat regret opting to receive e-mail notifications for forum replies now!
Regards,
Yazzdan.Hi Fatama,
This is what i did:
1) I went through the lectures on the Opentuition website using the Open tuition course notes
2) I bought Kaplan and BPP Revision booklets. I went through every question and answer.
3) I did mock exams on Open tuition and Specimen exam on ACCA Website.Regards,
YAh ok that makes sense. For e) I was referring to the “100%” rule, which didn’t even exist. Sorry if I implied you didn’t know the rule, i meant otherwise.
Brilliant the contract of guarantee makes sense as well.
Many thanks again,
Yazan
Thanks you Mike! I passed my Exam today (68%).
You’re lectures and personal guidance help a lot.
Kindest Regards,
YazanHi Akhtar,
I finished my tax exam on the 6th December. So one month later. I put in a lot of work though, had days off work and that excludes the xmas holidays.
I’ll private message you regarding the offer.
Regards
YazanThanks a lot for the quick reply! Much appreciated.
a,b,c,d,g are fine.I also understand f now.
So for e), you have not heard of this rule. I should assume the 95% rule?
Is it possible to hold an AGM of a public company with only 2 days’ notice? Yes, possible to hold AGM of public company with only 2 days’ notice provided short notice has been approved by holders of 100% of votes.
Also, just found one last question:
24) Contract of guarantee – must be evidenced in writing. Other contracts are contracts that must be made by deed.
^Why/what is this? “Other contracts that must be made by deed” does not make sense to me exactly. ?
Kind Regards,
YazanI was briefly looking through the flashcards and saw cards like “Kramer vs Kramer” represents what part of … law. I assume these sort of questions wont be comoing up?
Does anyone know when the answers will be published? or is that released after results day?
Fantastic advice and quick response, thanks!
I am studying the english variant. I’ll definitely go ahead and pursue your strategy.
To clarify, the case names are not important, and hence, do not need to be memorised? Instead i only need to familiarise myself with their rules/implications, yes?
fyi i did a general law module and uni so that should stand me in good stead as well as provide a strong basis for the upcoming contract and company law modulesm. should be interesting.
Thanks again
YQ3:
So i did not do Gains – CGT, i did Sale proceeds – CGT.
https://www.investopedia.com/terms/n/netproceeds.asp
^This was my reasoning and ended up with Alternative 2.
anyone with me?
Net proceeds does not equate to chargeable gain imo
@Taxtutor said:
If the taxpayer makes a claim against total income and then makes the claim against the net chargeable gains of that tax year then the loss is treated like a current year loss and may therefore reduce the net gains of the year below the level of the AEA.Please, a claim against current (2013/14) year loss can mean you can only set off other loss against current chargeable gains in the same year, that is, 2013/14 and not 2012/13?
