[Yazan]

Just to confirm, i do not need to actually remember the standard numbers/names for the international and english syllabuses as well?

Many thanks in advance

[Yazan]

Also realise the F8 is based on international standards…probably should do INT syllabus?

[Yazan]

Hi,
Just checking, the diagram tree was just multiplying 0.8 x 0.5 to get 0.4 for both low low and low high, am i right? Such that it totals 1 (0.2 high high +0.4 +0.4). Or is this wrong.
Thanks
Yazan

[Yazan]

This is in regards to your revision lecture. I assume I should always be cancelling the loan notes between the parent and sub?

[Yazan]

Sorry I meant in regards to W4A! Apologies. I can see your understanding for W4B.

W4A nci SOFP is given as 4,800 but nci impairment of 100 has not been allocated to it. Why?

[Yazan]

Please disregard point b)! I have seen my error – the impairment has indeed been allocated to the parent.

So, wny hasn’t the 20% impairment been allocated to W4B?

[Yazan]

The first part makes sense. Thanks.

a) In terms of the second part, I now see the goodwill impairment in W4B. However, for W4A in the answer booklet I only see two lines: “At date of acquisition” of 4500 and “Post-acquisition from statement of profit or loss and other comprehensive income” of 300. Should not the goodwill impairment of 500 be allocated to this according to % (i.e., 500 x 0.2 = 100)?

(The 300 only reflects the 2000 profit x 9/12 (post acq) x 20%.)

b) In terms of W3 consoldiated retained earnings, looking at the answer paper I now cannot see a goodwill impairment % adjustment. In my pro forma, after I have worked out the Total consolidated retrained earnings for P and S and added them together, i have written that goodwill impairment % (500 x 0.8 = 400 in this case) should be substracted to attain the final total.

Could you help explain what I am missing please? Is it due to the fact that it is an admin expense that we do not split it? :s

Kind regards,
Yazan

[Yazan]

I put operational but could be wrong. isnt VFM trying to find best deal? what was the definition again?

[Yazan]

For the fwd hedge it was just the receivsble amount divided by the fwd rate.

For the money hedge it was the receivable divided by the foreign borrowing rate/2. Convert at spot and then multiply by dollar desposit rate/2.

Am I right here? I think that it what I did and ended up with money hedge – want to make sure logic is correct.

[Yazan]

Hi guys,

Can i just check on how you did ABC?

Did you guys just apportion the costs to the numbers given i.e., 1/2.5 1.5/2.5 for first cost pool 24/48 etc for second cost pool and 1/5 and 4/5 for the meal costs?

Or was there something more to it?

Thanks

[Yazan]

Hi Jenny, where can i get a hand of the errata sheet?

Thanks
Yazan

[Yazan]

😀

I somewhat regret opting to receive e-mail notifications for forum replies now!

Regards,
Yazzdan.

[Yazan]

Hi Fatama,

This is what i did:

1) I went through the lectures on the Opentuition website using the Open tuition course notes
2) I bought Kaplan and BPP Revision booklets. I went through every question and answer.
3) I did mock exams on Open tuition and Specimen exam on ACCA Website.

Regards,
Y

[Yazan]

Ah ok that makes sense. For e) I was referring to the “100%” rule, which didn’t even exist. Sorry if I implied you didn’t know the rule, i meant otherwise.

Brilliant the contract of guarantee makes sense as well.

Many thanks again,

Yazan

[Yazan]

Thanks you Mike! I passed my Exam today (68%).

You’re lectures and personal guidance help a lot.

Kindest Regards,
Yazan

[Yazan]

Hi Akhtar,

I finished my tax exam on the 6th December. So one month later. I put in a lot of work though, had days off work and that excludes the xmas holidays.

I’ll private message you regarding the offer.

Regards
Yazan

[Yazan]

Thanks a lot for the quick reply! Much appreciated.

a,b,c,d,g are fine.I also understand f now.

So for e), you have not heard of this rule. I should assume the 95% rule?

Is it possible to hold an AGM of a public company with only 2 days’ notice? Yes, possible to hold AGM of public company with only 2 days’ notice provided short notice has been approved by holders of 100% of votes.

Also, just found one last question:

24) Contract of guarantee – must be evidenced in writing. Other contracts are contracts that must be made by deed.

^Why/what is this? “Other contracts that must be made by deed” does not make sense to me exactly. ?

Kind Regards,
Yazan

[Yazan]

I would like that as well. Would really appreciate it.

[Yazan]

I was briefly looking through the flashcards and saw cards like “Kramer vs Kramer” represents what part of … law. I assume these sort of questions wont be comoing up?

[Yazan]

Does anyone know when the answers will be published? or is that released after results day?

[Yazan]

Fantastic advice and quick response, thanks!

I am studying the english variant. I’ll definitely go ahead and pursue your strategy.

To clarify, the case names are not important, and hence, do not need to be memorised? Instead i only need to familiarise myself with their rules/implications, yes?

fyi i did a general law module and uni so that should stand me in good stead as well as provide a strong basis for the upcoming contract and company law modulesm. should be interesting.

Thanks again
Y

[Yazan]

So net proceeds means chargeable gain?

[Yazan]

@Taxtutor said:
If the taxpayer makes a claim against total income and then makes the claim against the net chargeable gains of that tax year then the loss is treated like a current year loss and may therefore reduce the net gains of the year below the level of the AEA.

Please, a claim against current (2013/14) year loss can mean you can only set off other loss against current chargeable gains in the same year, that is, 2013/14 and not 2012/13?

[Yazan]

Sorry but I am specifically referring to income tax. The “corporation tax” is just a copy and paste.

So in reference to Trading loss relief (NOT for corporations!), could you please advise?

Regards,
Yazan

[Yazan]

got it. makes sense.

Cheers!

[Author]

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