Forum Replies Created
- AuthorPosts
- July 15, 2019 at 7:36 am #523420
Passed with first attempt, thank you Mr Moffat and opentuition!!!
May 31, 2019 at 8:28 am #518022Sir,
Regarding delta which measures the change in option value which would result from a $1 change in the value of the underlying asset, what is the “underlying asset” when it comes to hedging of foreign exchange currency with option? Is it the Contract size currency?May 26, 2019 at 5:38 pm #517438@johnmoffat said:
The cash flows have been discounted at 9.6%, which is the ungeared cost of equity appropriate to the project.the cash flows generated in Gamala is discounted at ungeared cost of equity but the cash flows in USA is discounted at COC.. why?
May 26, 2019 at 9:03 am #517365Also, to calculate base case NPV, the cash flows have to be discounted at ungeared cost of equity but why is the cash flow in Tramont not discounted at ungeared cost of equity but at their own COC?
May 26, 2019 at 8:58 am #517364Why does the tax shield and subsidy benefit both use 20% tax rate to calculate? Is it because the fund is borrowed in Gamala that’s why it’s using Gamala’s tax rate or is it because the project is taken place in Gamala?
May 22, 2019 at 9:45 am #516837For the value attributable to shareholders part, why is the MV of debt included in the calculation? i’ve read your answer on a post that asked the same question as i did, you said “ if you want substract debt for both, the difference is still 128m”.
however, i tried to do it as you said,
60000×60% + 31884 + 5594 – 60000×60% – 21000(MV of E of anatra), which got me $16478…can you please explain further?May 19, 2019 at 11:32 am #516415Dear sir,
for the answer on the impact on SOFP, instead of separating the heading into “sales disposal” and “adjustments”, can i simply use “impact” and write down the figuress?
May 15, 2019 at 1:52 pm #516014Sir, why is it that only Value created for VCO is calculated when the questions asks for “Chrysos Cp’s value to the equity holders”?
May 11, 2019 at 9:18 am #515589Dear sir,
Is the difference between the 2 total figures below called ARBITRAGE GAIN?
CMC borrows at float y+0.4% and counterparty borrows at fixed 3.8%, the total comes to y+4.2%if CMC borrows fixed at 2.2% and the other party borrows floating at y+0.8%, the total comes to y+3%
and after deducting the fees it will arrive at NET SAVING?
May 10, 2019 at 5:27 pm #515534I’ve found the requirement. Please ignore the question i’ve just asked. Thank you 🙂
May 10, 2019 at 5:05 pm #515532for part (a), why is the net additional cost calculated? i can’t seem to find any specific requirements for it… can i calculate the net payment and effective annual interest rate for each hedging method instead?
May 8, 2019 at 4:37 pm #515338For the first question i asked,
if i use the first method to calculate D’11 Q2c, i’ll get the same answer.
if i use second method to calculate D’12 Q2, i’ll get an answer of 145.18 instead of 145.22.May 8, 2019 at 3:11 pm #515329Thank you sir 🙂
May 7, 2019 at 2:01 am #515136I think i’ve got it now!
Do you mind answering my second question above?
Thank you. 🙂
April 25, 2019 at 5:00 pm #514126Sir, how do i know if i should calculate value of equity using discounted FCF – MV of debt, or using discounted FCFE?
April 25, 2019 at 6:26 am #514046From Dec’14 Q4b, at confidence level of 95%, the examiner uses 1.282. Can i use either 1.28 or 1.285 (which is between 0.4015 & 0.3997) instead?
April 22, 2019 at 9:36 am #513714Sir, is currency swap calculation done the same way as interest rate swap?
April 20, 2019 at 3:23 pm #513592Alright, thank you! 🙂
April 20, 2019 at 5:24 am #513561Sorry, i just found the answer to that question! 🙂
Another question, on collars, there’s a loss on exercise included in the net payment. Is it correct if i think of the loss/gain on the exercise this way:
if holders of our sold call options exercise their right, we will have ‘loss on exercise’ by paying them
if we exercise our put option, we will have ‘gain on exercise’ by buying them back at lower price?
If both of the parties exercise the options: it is the net of the above two
Is it correct?April 15, 2019 at 8:05 pm #512963Sir, why is the net payment calculation for currency option in example 3 chapter 19 and june ‘14 Q1(a) so different?
What kind of question should i apply the 2 different methods to?April 11, 2019 at 12:20 pm #511905Got it!! Thank you so much!
April 11, 2019 at 10:41 am #511841Oh got it! Thanks a lot!!
April 10, 2019 at 7:48 am #511610I did the tax allowable depreciation for Neptune in this way
Y1 : 50% x 800 = 400
Y2 : (800-400) x 40% = 160
Y3 : (800-400-160) x 40% = 96
Y4 : (800-400-160-96) x 40% = 57.6
Y5 : (800-400-160-96-57.6) = 46.4 (balancing allowance)First i subtracted it from operating cash flow and added it back to post-tax operating cash flow, which leads me to a totally different answer from the answer sheet..
My question is on the Y5 and Y6 capital allowance saving on the answer sheet, where did the figures come from?April 10, 2019 at 7:38 am #511606Can i have the link please? I can’t find it..
I don’t understand.. does that mean if i subtract it ‘on the face’ of the cash flow rather than working, i’ll have to add it back later?
I only learned two approaches which are : 1. subtract it and add it back method, 2. deduct tax% x TAD from post-tax operating cf. I tried the question using method 1, which leads me to a different answer from examiner..April 10, 2019 at 5:34 am #511598Sir, why is the tax allowable depreciation not added back to post-tax operating cash flow?
- AuthorPosts