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Please help me! F9
When we calculate cost of debt after tax, Bpp shows that we have to deduct interest first (interest x (1-T)) then we can work out cost cost of debt after tax (yield to maturity). But in a lot of other textbooks such CFA we can work out kd first and then multiplied by (1-t) to get cost of debt after tax. Who is right? Thanks in advance.
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