[vasuverma21]

That was asked in my 8th December 2023 Exam

Task1 (38 marks)
– Analysis of the Principal risk. Finanical & operational performance impact due to Principal risk (14+4 marks)

b- How to improve performance of the NCTech (12 + 4 marks)

Task-2 (36 marks)

A – Evaluation of the given Business case prepared by the operational director for SaaS and comment on different director’s view given in transcript. (18+4 marks)

b- how to process with strategic change and Key Leadership style to successfully launch SaaS (10+4 marks)

Task 3 (26 marks)
a) Assist to operational director in planning the PID (10 marks)

B) Slides , significant risk to launch SaaS and tell recommendations also (12 + 4 marks)

[vasuverma21]

Omg??, how did i do the wrong calculation?, i have practiced alot in this, still i did the wrong, ?, you did it well bro, might be they will deduct 1-2 marks out of 5marks. Let’s see, hope for the best 🙂

[vasuverma21]

Did i do the right calculations of net asset of sub. At the date of acquisition.? Any idea.?

[vasuverma21]

Yeah, you are right, this calculation was useless , i was just in the flow ?

[vasuverma21]

DID ANY ONE GET THE GOODWILL AND CON. PROFIT AND LOSS ACCOUNT QST. IN WHICH WE HAVE GIVEN THE VALUE OF NET ASSETS AT THE DATE OF ACQ. OF SUBSIDIARY. AND OTHER ADDTIONAL WORKING OF F.V OF PLANT EXCEED THE VALUE OF C.V & INV AT THE DATE OF ACQ. BUT NOT ON THE DATE OF REP. DATE.??

I DID. IN GOODWILL CALULCATION.

GIVEN ASSET AT THE DATE OF ACQ.+ F.V EXCESS OF PLANT – EXCESS DEP + EXCESS INV. VALUE(ASSUMING C.Y PROFIT OF PRE PERIOD 3 MONTHS INCLUDED IN THE GIVEN NET ASSETS)

I HAVE CAL. REP DATE NET ASSET AS. GIVEN ACQ. NET ASSETS + F.V EXCESS – EXCESS DEP.+ C.Y 9 MONTHS PROFIT (ASSUMING 3 MONTHS PROFIT INCLUDED IN NET ASSET AT ACQ.) ???

DID I DO THE RIGHT CALCULATIONS???

I WAS LITTLE BIT CONFUSED IN THE DIVIDEND PART OF NCI. I DID RIGHT CALCULATION OF DIV. PART OF PARENT.

[vasuverma21]

Yes, you are correct either we can inflate from 2nd year if 1st year’s amount is given (included inflation rate) or we can convert 1st year amount into 0 period.

as 1st year amount is 3.12 $ ( inflated @ 4%)
2nd year amount would be 3.12*1.04 = 3.24 $. OR

we can convert 1st year amount in zero period as well. like
3.12/1.04 = 3 $
1st year amount will be = 3 *1.04= 3.12 $
2nd year = (3*1.04)*1.04= 3.24 $

[vasuverma21]

HI, ACCORDING TO THE BPP PRACTICE KIT QUESTIONS,IF THEY GIVE BOTH RATES , NOMINAL AS WELL AS REAL RATE FOR WACC, AND NOTHING IS MENTIONED IN THE QUESTION AS WELL, WE SHOULD TAKE NOMINAL RATE FOR WACC CALCULATION.

IT’S ONLY MY EXPERIENCE THAT I GAINED FROM THE PRACTICE QSTS OF BPP. MAY BE YOU DID RIGHT SOLUTION. ALL THE BEST THOUGH!

[Author]

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