Hi when Marchant disposed of the 8% I added the Net Assets and the Goodwill at that date and took 8% of it to give me the amount disposed of, however that is not how it was done in the answer. I am puzzled at this eleventh hour as that is how I have been doing them all along and taught to do them too. Why did they use the carrying value of the investment?
I agree with most I practiced ALL the questions from the Kaplan kit and this paper was so contrary to what I was familiar with. I dont feel good about it at all