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So the difference is in the fixed salary. I thought that in example 2 the labor cost was fixed. Yes, I did watch the lecture. Thank you very much.
” a settlement occurs either when an employer enters into a transaction to eliminate part or all of its post employment benefit obligation, other than a payment of benefits to or on behalf of employees under the terms of the plan and included in the actuarial assuptions”
This paragraph is from the book of bpp and of i am not wrong the note corresponds to the second part of the paragraf. Please explain to me what is the difference in the treatment?
It’s is from practise kit on Diploma ifrs bpp.
I debited the oci because the voluntary redundancy is on the terms of the plan. According to the book we must recognize any gain or loss in P/L only if the curtailment or the termination of the plan wasn’t in the terms of the plant.Correct me if I am wrong.
But if am not mistaken the trade receivables do not affect the retained earnings. Therefore the solution in bpp in which the retained earnings debited with the amount of trade receivables is wrong right?
This question concern a practise test from bpp diploma ifrs where I am about to participate at the June’s exams.
I am confused because the contribution must be accounted in the pension asset so if the accounting treatment is
Dr trade receivables 160
Cr cash 160And the right entry for contribution is
Dr plan asset 160
Cr cash 160Then we should do the following entry
Dr plan asset 160
Cr trade receivables 160
