[thuyngo94]

Sorry Sir! I already knew the answer. Need to use the general inflation rate.
Thank you Sir. you can close this question.

[thuyngo94]

Thanks Sir for your explanation

[thuyngo94]

Oh ya! i forgot we book the variance in Share premium and we calculate the book value of equity is including in Share Premium.
Thank you Sir for your helpful explanation.

[thuyngo94]

Thanks John. Yes its from BPP revision kit.
Thanks so much for the explanation.

[thuyngo94]

Thanks Sir. I got it.
I have watched the video. My thought just stick to the formula.
payable turnover period = (payable/ cost of sale) * 365
I was just thinking if company over-trading, revenue increased then COS of course also increased and payable increased as well so finally dont know weather payable turnover period is increased?

[thuyngo94]

Thank you Mike! Your videos and your help in answering my inquiries were great help. I got 75%.

[thuyngo94]

I got it. Thanks Sir!

[thuyngo94]

Thanks Sir for a very clear explanation.
Further, I would like to have your advise for two bellow questions:
1. Can number 1 in the situation “Twelve months of PAYE arrears owing to HM Revenue & Customs” be classified as unsecured creditor as well?

2. After pay all debts, If company still have surplus, this surplus amount will be share among members. As per my understanding members here includes both original share and preference share holders base on their percentage of contribution. Am I right? Thanks

[thuyngo94]

I got it. Thank you Sir!

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