[Jumaev]

yes defintely, you are right, 3mln is just only maintanance cost because it was not mentioned about the performance of the engine. we depreciate just only CV (6mln) by 15000 hours.

[Jumaev]

Hi Good evening Tutor, I have one more question which I calculated the correct answer but slightly confused with method of book. I give full question detail.
Income statement:
Sales: 21,300
Cost of sales: 16,400
Gross profit: 4900
Balance sheet:
Receivables; 3500
Overdraft; 3000

A factor has offered to manage the trade recievables of Bold in a servicing and factor financing agreement. The factor expects to reduce the average trade recievables of Bold from current level to 35 days to reduce bad debts from 0.9% of turnover to 0.6% of turnover. and save Bold 40 000 per year in admin cost. The factor would also makae an advance to Bold 80% of the revided book value of recievables. The interest rate on the advance would be 2% higher than the 7% that Bold currently pays on its overdraft. The factor would charge a fee of 0.75 % of turnover an a with- recourse basis or a fee of 1.25 % of turnover on a recourse basis. Assume 365 days in a year. that all sales and supplies on a credit.
Question: Calculate the value of Factor’s offer
1) On a with recourse basis
2) on a with non-recourse basis.
_______________________________________________________________________
My calculations method; Let us consider the costs with out factors offers.
Bad debts=21300×0.9=191.7
Financing cost= 3500×7%=245
Admind cost= 40
Total cost=191.7+245+40=476.7

1) what will be total costs If Factors offer with recourse basis
Factos cost= 21300×0,75%=159.75
Finance cost ( for 80% advance)= 35/365x21300x80%x9%= 147
FInance cost (for 20 remaing receivables)= 35/365x21300x20%x7%= 28.6
Bad debts = 21300x 0.6%= 127.8
Total cost= 159.75+147+28.6+127.8= 463,15

Net Benefit from Factor service on Recourse basis= 476.7-463.15=13.55 ( Answer is correct with the book)

2) What will be the total cost if factors with non recourse basis;
Factor cost= 21300×1.25%=266.25
Finance cost ( for 80% advance)= 35/365x21300x80%x9%= 147
FInance cost (for 20 remaing receivables)= 35/365x21300x20%x7%= 28.6
Total costs= 266.25+147+28.6= 441,85

Net Benefits from Factors with non recourse basis= 476.7- 441,85= 34.85 ( correct answer with the book)

BUT WHAT I AM CONFUSED HERE AS I KNOW NON RECOURSE BASIS FACTOR SERVICE IT TAKES ALL THE BAD DEBTS. IF I TAKE THE BAD DEBTS FOR NON RECOURSE IT IS WRONG ANSWER COMES. look my method i calculated is there any wrong ?

[Jumaev]

thanks Tutor !

[Jumaev]

Dear Tutor, I have another question
The current policy is order 100,000 units when the inventory levels falls to 35000 units.Forecast demand to meet production requirement during the next year is 625000 units. The cost of placing and processing an order is $250 while the cost of holding a unit in stores is $0.5 per unit per year. Both costs are expected to be constant during the next year. Orders are recieved two weeks after being placed with suppliers. You should assume a 50 week year and that demand is constant throughout the year.

Calculate the cost of the current ordering policy and determine the saving that could be made by using the EOQ model.

My calculation method.

D=625000
Co=250
Ch=0.5
EOQ= 25000
Total cost= 625000/25000×250+25000/2×0,5= 12500
Total cost (By company policy)= 625000/100000×250+100 000/2×0.5=26563
Saving= 26563-12500=14063
_____________________________________________________________________
Calculation by book
Minimum inventory level= reorder level -(average usagexaverage lead time)
Avergae usage per week= 625000/50=12500
Avergae lead time= 2 weeks
Reorder level=35000 units
Minimum inventory level=35000-(12500×2)=10 000 units
Average inventory = Minimum level+reorder level/2 = 10000+(100 000/2)=60 000 units

Annual holding cost=60 000 x0.5 = 30 000
Annual order cost= 250x(625000/100 000) = 1563
Annual cost= 30000+1563=31563

EOQ=25000
Number of orders per years=625000/25000=25
Annual oredering cost=250×25=6250
Annual holding cost =(10 000+(25000/2))x0.50 =11250
Annual total cost =11250+6250=17500
Saving as a result of EOQ= 31563-17500=14063

So, you can see both method are the same result. What do you think My method is correct if I follow. Because the book method is so complex. Thanks in advance

[Jumaev]

Yeah, Thanks so much Dear Tutor, I was also wondering when I calculated average receivable days based on receivable on balans sheet 550/4mlnx365= 50 days but i was wondering why it is different from 40 days as question says. Thanks so much Dear Tutor, your explanation is so clear for me now.

[Jumaev]

As i know theoritically how to calculate receivable balance if the discount is offered is as like below:

Receivable balance: 4000×2/3×14/365 + 4000×1/3×40/365=102.3+146.1=248.4

But the correct answer is 283000

[Jumaev]

Dear Tutor,
One thing I could not understand why you did minuse $26,667 from receivables balance ?

[Jumaev]

Ok Dear Tutor,
I will write full question.
Vell com sells stationary and office supplies on wholesaleable basis and has annual turnover 4 mln. The company employs four people in it’s sales ledger and credit control department at annual salary $12000 each. Alll sales are on 40 days credit with no discount for early payment. Bad debts reprsents 3% of turnover and Velm com pays annual interest of 9% on it’s overdraft. The most recent accounts of company financial information.
Non current asset -17500
inventory – 900
Recievable – 550
Cash – 120
Ordinary shares – 3500
Reserves – 11640
12% Bonds – 2400
Trade payable – 330
Overdraft- 1200
Velm Co is considering offering discount of 1% to customers paying within 14days which it believs will reduce bad debts to 2.4% of turnover. The company also expects that offering a discount for early payment will reduce the average credit taken by it’s customers to 26 days. The consequent reduction in time spent chasing customers where payments are overdue will allow one member of credit control team to take ealry retirement. Two thirds of customer are expected to take advantage of the discount.

Question> Using the information provided above determine whether a discount for early payment of 1% percent will lead to an increase in profitability for Velm comp.?

Thanks in advance

[Author]

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