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Hi John,
Sorry for the link, I will make sure I won’t in the future.
Thanks for the clarification, clear now.
Best regards,
KennyHi John,
Yes, I did, watched the three lectures on cost of capital already.
John, need help on a quick one – exchange rate sometimes given in two rates (i.e. $/£ 1.500 – 1.510), what do they mean? buy/sell, or are they a range?
Many thanks!
Best regards,
KennyThanks Stephen!
Will try my best to. Taking SBR and AFM together and 100% self-study, so a bit stress.
Hi Stephen,
Noted with thanks Stephen!
Yeah, I searched online again also, it is held in other components of equity (OCE) under a reserve account called fair value reserve.
Kaplan study material is really disappointing, in this particular area of incompleteness it is like watching a movie for few hours and it does not have an ending, not to mention errors/mistakes, examples incompleteness and using all these smart words which are really unnecessary. Rushing for exam, if not, will summarise all errors/issues and file a formal complaint to both Kaplan and ACCA.
Best regards,
KennyGot it. Thanks John!
Just did.
I am trying to understand the logic behind the formulas, else, they may just slipped away from my memory easily.
Best regards,
KennyHi John,
Yes, I am in China so unable to access to youtube. I am cross-referencing the notes with Kaplan study text and exam kit. I am aware of the time value of money.
As we know, IRR is the discount rate at which the NPV of an investment is zero, so if IRR = the return to investors (Kd), this means that the investor gets back only its initial investment without further return, for example, the risk-free and risk-related premium in accordance with CAPM. This is the part I am confused with.
Best regards,
KennyThanks Stephen!
This is the exact answer I am looking for.
Best to focus on the understanding and the evaluation of the rule of the applicable standard, rather than wasting time typing and memorising the ‘name’ of it.