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tahzeeb

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Active 6 years ago
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  • August 9, 2014 at 7:26 pm #189020
    8eae173fade446a31986842a4dc17738c39a42fd337a85575430d1c5d2d1397f 80tahzeeb
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    Passed
    Mark: 85

    October 28, 2011 at 12:49 pm #89126
    8eae173fade446a31986842a4dc17738c39a42fd337a85575430d1c5d2d1397f 80tahzeeb
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    got it!!!!!!!!!

    October 27, 2011 at 2:49 pm #89124
    8eae173fade446a31986842a4dc17738c39a42fd337a85575430d1c5d2d1397f 80tahzeeb
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    Tutor, thanks a lot for the valuable inputs!! I’m almost through with the confusion. Just a small part left to be cleared out. Referring to your Answer no. 2, SFP should ONLY show the capital part of liability (both current and n/current). But the moment we credit the accrued interest to the liability account, the capital part is increased by that amount and the total is reflected accordingly in SFP. How can we show the sole capital part then? Please help.

    October 27, 2011 at 6:20 am #88943
    8eae173fade446a31986842a4dc17738c39a42fd337a85575430d1c5d2d1397f 80tahzeeb
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    After the end of first period, we incur an interest expense. What is the journal for that?

    Dr Interest Exp
    Cr Interest payable OR Cr Lease payable

    This is where Kaplan makes me confused. It shows that this interest is added to the capital amount carried forward. And, it shows that current lease liability is the full payment amount due beginning of next year. Why is that?

    Secondly, When we make the payment at the beginning of the next year, what is the capital portion of the payment? Is it the balancing figure after deducting the interest accrued last year or the interest that is to be accrued at the end of the current year?

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