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  • May 25, 2021 at 9:41 pm #621768
    6fb84c537a11b08d0c6b390b627447be2a26fbe735d1abcedf01463358a45eb0 80sinaadesoga
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    It makes sense to $15m as PV of cash inflow, which, if net against PV of initial outlay of $15m, it produces $0 NPV. So, if $15m is already in present value, why is it still been further discounted at cost of capital?

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