[sartersanbor]

Thanks, I understand but unfortunately I am unable to retain formulae in the long term if I do not understand what I am doing. No worries I will try and find the answer in a maths forum or somewhere else.

Regards

Sara

[sartersanbor]

Ok, many thanks

[sartersanbor]

ok, many thanks for your reply

[sartersanbor]

Thanks but I still do not understand why we only do discount down from the issuer´s side…Can you please explain further?

[sartersanbor]

Dear Sir

Many thanks for your reply.

I got this from the BPP Workbook. It looks like they were meant to write 650 instead of 660 so it could be a typo?

May I also ask, why do they deduct NCI? wouldn’t that portion be already deducted when you deduct the net assets of the subsidiary at disposal? does it have to do with the value of NCI being measured at FV instead at the proportionate share of the acquiree’s net assets?

Best regards,

Sara

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