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- April 28, 2020 at 2:24 pm #569428
can you please give me a formate toby which i can calculate the outsourcing cost as I have tried even taking 40% of only material and variable overheads..but still got incorrect ans…
April 24, 2020 at 10:33 pm #569174there are 2 other costs are given in accountancy department..1 is amortisation of non current asset and second is admin costs of material and variable overheads…I have tried to taking 40 of them but still got incorrect ans
April 22, 2020 at 12:45 pm #568947i am not asking about staff accountancy costs ..I am asking about non-satff accountancy costs..
May 26, 2017 at 3:08 pm #388278I am having difficulty in associate part ..which happen in july….
May 27, 2015 at 11:43 am #249531R plc has in issue $400000 8% bonds redeemable in 5 years time at a premiuim of 10% and investor required return is 12%.
market value of debt?May 27, 2015 at 7:30 am #249423how to calculate effective cost of offering discount where only 60% customers taking advantage of discount?
May 26, 2015 at 5:42 am #249028LJM Co is considering investing in a new project which will cost $160000.
It has an expected life of 4years and scarp value of $20000.
The anticipated net operating cashflows are as follow:
Year 1 $40000
Year 2 $60000
Year 3 $80000
Year 4 $20000Cost of capital is 10% pa.
What is the ARR?dear sir how you calculate the ARR?
As my ans is 55.56% and the real ans is 16.67%December 3, 2012 at 4:18 am #106955The amount which we can easily recover from tangible assets….
December 3, 2012 at 4:05 am #105853But dear sangria the acquisition is at 20X5 ,so the dep. is over 36 years, not at 40…..
December 3, 2012 at 3:53 am #107571You can use direct impact of entries.
December 2, 2012 at 3:46 pm #108391Tell me the figures….
I wll help you…December 2, 2012 at 3:45 pm #108450Yes…why not
December 2, 2012 at 3:43 pm #108632Dear ,
As in first adjustment 105 rev.reserve, from this the impairment loss will be adjusted and its 25 rev.reserve took to PnL as impairment loss…December 2, 2012 at 1:39 pm #108771If you get higher percentage you will get the certificate… other wise not…
December 2, 2012 at 1:34 pm #109104As sangria said right, our formula for present value is :
present value=F*1/(1+r)nWhere “F” is the factor , “r” is rate of capital and “n” is the period .
There “n” use as the power of brackets..
December 2, 2012 at 1:17 pm #109129Dear ,
clear one thing, parent acquire these loan notes or issue these loan note?December 2, 2012 at 1:11 pm #109198Sangria said good.
Ok If we are talking about associate , we remember, the share of profits are debit in balance sheet and credit in cons.reserves(retained earning)December 2, 2012 at 12:51 pm #109451Dear jehangum,
EPS is the earning per share, for this You can just apply the formula:EPS=profit dividable to shareholder/average number of shares
May 2, 2012 at 12:13 pm #69814Can we pass f4 in one month preparation?
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