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saidmezher

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  • June 9, 2011 at 3:53 pm #84042
    mysterysaidmezher
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    Q1
    either ways would work, either apply inflation on each and individual inflow/outflow (do it this way and lose valuable time for other questions), or cashflows without appying inflation on any but discount at effective cost of capital (e) 1+e = (1+m/1+i) instead.(and u would have saved a lot of valuable time for other questions

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