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- December 6, 2016 at 2:05 pm #354494
Thank you
December 4, 2016 at 4:10 pm #353747Thank you. Sorry for being thick but for share pool then, we use the figure on our calculator (more than 3 dp)?
November 29, 2016 at 11:28 pm #352475This is from the BPP book. In the book, the answer given has the cash receipts total as £41,000 + (4,000 – 1,500). I do not understand why we have to add the invoices sales to the cash receipts as we have not received the cash. I thought under Cash Basis we onyl include receipts for actual cash received. Is this an error in the text book? Thanks
May 7, 2016 at 8:09 pm #314050Thank you for your reply and clarification
April 5, 2016 at 10:22 pm #309115Thanks Mike.
November 15, 2015 at 7:02 pm #282684Ignore me, the carrying value of the revalued asset is £1,187,500, sold for £1,195,000 therefore profit of £7,500.00
Sorry to have wasted your time
November 15, 2015 at 6:54 pm #282682Thank you for your reply John.
From your first paragraph then the answer to the question should be £247,500 and not £7,500 as stated in the book. Can you please confirm?
Thanks
October 13, 2015 at 8:16 pm #276223To further elaborate the questions from the text book is: “How is the total of the purchase day book posted to the nominal ledger?”
Answer is “Debit purchases, Credit Payables Control”
Now i understand why it is a debit purchases but for Credit shouldnt it be a mixture of Cash and Payables control?
For example two transactions:
Purchased £10 for goods x by cash
Purchased £100 for goods y on creditPurchase t account is debit £110
Cash at bank is credit £10
Payabales accounts is credit £100No???
November 5, 2014 at 8:42 pm #207882Hi Sir
Just thought I say thank you for your help. I managed to pass my F2 paper with a mark of 88%. Now onto F3!!!
Mandip
November 2, 2014 at 6:18 pm #207292i thought so. Thank you for getting back to me so quickly. Much appreciated
November 2, 2014 at 1:30 pm #207251Hi i have another question of budgeting.
Its from the BPP book but i am confused with how they got the answer.
Company makes a component M which uses 3 kg of raw material X. Opening inventory of start of year is: 5,000kg ($4 a kg) and 3,000 units. Budgeted sales is 48,000 throughout the year (evenly). Closing inventory at the end of the year is:
Raw material x = one months worth of production
Units of M = 2 months worth of sales.i have managed to work our the closing units of m = 8,000 but the book has the closing inventory of material x to be (96,000/12) = 8,000. i do not know where they have got the figure 96,000 from?
please help
October 28, 2014 at 8:30 pm #206461Thanks for that. I was using the Present Value Table for each year to work out what the Present value of £90k which accumulated to a slightly different figure if when i used the annuity value.
For part B is the accounting rate of return the same as internal rate of return? If so the answer is 21% but this is hard to work out if the present value figure table go only to 20%.
Part C i have understood as it is not discounted, so it is the accumulation of $90k until the $300k is paid back.
Once again, thank you for answering my queries.
October 27, 2014 at 10:26 pm #206311There is another question on the test but this time i do not know how to arrive at the answer. The question is:
A company operates a process costing system. WIP at start of process of 500 units ($4000) which were 30% complete. Total of 2000 units were completed and transferred to finished goods warehouse. Cost per equivalent unit for output produced during the month was $30. Company uses FIFO method. What is the total cost of the 2,000 units transferred to the finished goods warehouse?
October 27, 2014 at 10:10 pm #206310No problem. Apologies for posting this twice. My browser refreshed by accident.
October 18, 2014 at 8:16 pm #204884Sorry John for posting on the other “Ask Tutor Section”. It is my first time posting but that is no excuse.
I am also sorry but i still do not understand. I understand the investment is earning 2% more than the cost of capital so it will make a profit. But how can you say it will earn more of a profit than the original ROI of 18%. Cost of capital remains the same at 15% and i’m assuming the amount invested will be the same.
I have tried with numbers and i get RI to decrease not increase.
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