[qilianm]

Thank you.

[qilianm]

Thank you.

May I ask about the new issue of 3,000,000 shares under the same example. I understand it works out the average of 2,000,000x 6/12 before the new issue, where I do not get is the fraction 3/2 on this part. Thanks

Regards,

Qilian

[qilianm]

Thanks a lot, really appreciate it

[qilianm]

Thank you.

[qilianm]

Sorry, “freeholder”was a typo. Thank you:)

[qilianm]

Hi Mike,

Thank you for the explanation.

Is is like extra cash bonus given by the company as a freeholder, and if you decide to reinvest the money, it will be recalculated based on the market value of the shares at the date shares are quoted? Thanks.

[qilianm]

Yes, that makes sense. Just wanted to confirm it. Thank you.

[qilianm]

I got it know. thank you very much Sir and it is greatly appreciated.

[qilianm]

Hi, John. Thank you very much for your explanation. I did not realise this is included in the BPP mock test. Sorry. I have been doing some practice regarding performance analysis and I am getting bit confused about fixed overhead cost. I was wondering if it is correct to say fixed overhead changes along with the activity level regardless absorption cost& marginal cost method applied? Thank you

[qilianm]

Hi John, Thank you very much for your prompt respond, much appreciated.

You have explained everything way clearer than the answer from the examiner’s report. Thank you very much again.

[qilianm]

Thank you very much John, I really appreciate that:)

[qilianm]

Thanks John, I think I understand where I made the mistake. Can I please also confirm with you in this question the formula ( or the way we think about this) should be : budgeted contribution + Sales Volume Variance + Sales Price Variance + Variable Cost Variance = Actual contribution, however we have to apply (+/-) when we know it is negative or positive. Hope this makes sense. Thank you:)

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