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aha. so, you’re saying that all this is because of volatility of the data on which we’re basing our calculations. now that we’re sure that we can only do worse than the average by about $1.4M, and considering that we can do better than the average as before, our chances and NPV are improving.
make sense to me )
thanx for your comprehensive answer!
oh, sorry, of course they are. I’m just awfully absent-minded, couldn’t see it at once. probably because I expected to see the strike on the left side of the table.
I’ve seen all your lectures and I find them very clear and helpful. now I’m studying for the exam with Kaplan publication, but whenever I’m not sure of the meaning one thing or another I refer to your lectures. thank you very much for being so helpful.
thank you so much!
however, i’ve got another one for you here:
https://opentuition.com/acca/p2/acca-p2-share-based-payments-ifrs-2-equity-settled/aw, thank you so much 🙂
to say the truth, I quite understood it from the first time 🙂gtg
I think you’re right. it’s just I always feel myself more comfortable getting a bit broader view. but I should value time, I know that. particularly now, with only one month left to the exam.
actually, I’ve completely figured out IHT by now, so I’ll assuredly be able to get marks at least on this one 🙂
shame on me, I’ve definitely missed that part in your notes. didn’t come across the systems of NIC payments though.
thank you for your help!
right. logically thinking, we’re increasing costs by decreasing closing balance of inventory, innit? I’ve always been a complete mess with these add-ings and less-ings :((
as for your Q about why not also deduct in full the intra-group transaction, I believe that we’ve already done it in full, so why do it one more time? next step, we eliminate just our deemed future profit in our accounts
Mike, shouldn’t we also add the unrealised profit back to the inventory in case we’re required to prepare CFP?
I see the point now, thank you, sir
it’s a pity you don’t have ‘like’ buttons here on opentuition :((
🙂
or we probably better do it this way (in case depreciation’s given):
dr:
b/f 720,000
revaluation 150,000
therefore: cash (as in purchase) 500,000
total: 1,370cr:
c/f 910,000
nbv of disposal 80,000
dpn 380,000
total: 1,370purchase (500,000)
proceeds from disposal 100,000
net cash flow from investing activities (400,000)also, when we know the purchase price, we can calculate depreciation, and vice versa
seems I’m beginning to get it! 🙂
ok, I see now, it’s
dr:
b/f 720,000
purchase (as in allowance) 100,000
purchase (as in cash) 400,000
revaluation 150,000
total: 1,370cr:
c/f 910,000
nbv of sales 80,000
dpn 380,000
total: 1,370>>the is no way to have a standard! What would be the point?
to always know how to calculate and not to have to guess each and every time – that would be the point.sorry, sir, I’m just a bit on edge before the exam…
not ok, no. why would we always have different calculations for different cases? why no pro-form? so, what would be accounting records for this case at all? may be that’d be helping?
so? how do we find cash if, say, depreciation of 380,000 was given? please, the whole calculation with T account, not by just deducting 100 from 500 – it’s calculation for this particular case, and I want to figure out the overall algorithm.
then I took the whole point wrong :((
so, what would be the T account calculation for that (investment activity only)?dr:
b/f 720,000
purchase 500,000
revaluation 150,000
total: 1,370cr:
c/f 910,000
nbv of sales 80,000
dpn 380,000
total: 1,370it balances, so, where’s cash flow here?
