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patricia65

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  • March 2, 2023 at 10:27 am #679962
    mysterypatricia65
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    Sir, boullain part c, when calculating the loss on 1 march, they did ( 1.1410- 1.1422) my question is why did the use the September price the 1.1422 , why don’t they atleast use the march futures
    Please explain. Thank you!

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