Forum Replies Created
- AuthorPosts
- September 7, 2016 at 9:49 pm #338838
whenever we flex the budget it will be based on actual units sold i.e volume. we never change the price so sales price variance is irrelevant here. and the answer is only sales volume variance i hope.
any other thoughts please reply.
September 7, 2016 at 8:52 pm #338815Breakeven:
X contribution is 10 and y contribution is 4. Y is double of X, if we assume X=1 then Y must be 2.
so the weight average contribution becomes 6 as follows.10×1=10
4×2=8
total 18 then divide it by total units i.e 3(X=1,Y=2).
then fixed cost+profit/6 will give u the answer.September 7, 2016 at 8:19 pm #338795ROI:
since both the adjustments(purchase and sale of asset) are on cash basis.
we are selling one asset for 40K and getting cash of 50K so the net change in the asset is 10K.
if we purchase asset for cash then net change in asset is nill.so the total value of the asset is 1010000.
September 7, 2016 at 8:12 pm #338787what is the answer for Value for money, is it efficiency or effectiveness, i choose effectiveness since it shows the relationship between output and objectives.
December 12, 2015 at 6:32 am #291278“Wow, I must have missed that. All I remember seeing was that no depreciation had been recorded and that the old and new lease should not be treated separately in calculating the finance cost”.
yes what you said regarding lease calculation is correct we should not calculate the leases separately, what about the depreciation calculation, in question it was said that apart from lease obligation nothing has been recorded so i assumed that the new lease cost is not included in the old lease carrying value so i added to the cost of old lease after calculating the current year depreciation.
December 11, 2015 at 7:40 pm #291190regarding finance lease it was told that apart from lease obligation nothing has been recorded about new finance lease so i have added the 6000 minus current depreciation to non current assets in the balance sheet.
any one did the same
December 9, 2015 at 11:37 pm #289999ACCA has published September 2015 yesterday, what about December 2015 does any one has any idea about it.
June 18, 2015 at 4:03 pm #257752can any one suggest me answer for MCQ 3
as per the professor JOHN the answer is D, but as per my calculation answer is B
option B is as follows. Mean growth in dividends per share over the period is 4%
and my calculation is as follows. (15/13)^(1/3)-1= 4.88%can any one suggest me the right answer
June 6, 2015 at 7:26 am #254312in question 2 they have asked for advantages for DVM and EY based on the calculated values if we write assumptions and drawbacks will they give marks???
June 5, 2015 at 6:50 pm #254083my answers to mcq
1.A
2.C
3.B
4.A
5.D
6.A
7.C
8.D
9.C
10.B
11.C
12.D
13.C
14.A
15.C
16.A
17.D
18.B
19.D
20.A - AuthorPosts