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My aim is to be a good accountant and not just to pass exams.
It would be good to know what is the right thing to do.
Notes say these losses can be carried over with no time limit.
Legislation says opposite and you are saying I should rely on ACCA notes
sorry.
The example of moving CF from years 1-4 to 3-6 for option to delay is from the article.
I was referring to MMC and now I see my mistake in regards to CFs there.
However, you said MMC question was set up by a new examiner but it does add the value of the option to the value of initial project. What do I miss here? is it an error or there are cases when we should add them up and there are cases when we should substitute the project value without the option by the project value with option?
Thank you
Thank you.
Am I right thinking that the previous examiner also did not move years 1-4 cash inflows to years 3-6 for discounting purpose? (option to delay for 2 years)
I am trying to compare the article and June 2011 Q4 answer (which then appears to be completely wrong in this case)
Thank you John.
Yes, I did watch all your lectures and thanks for them and particularly for always explaining the reasoning behind the transactions/approaches/formulae. Unfortunately, a lot of lecturers only teach student to pass exam rather than to know the subject.
Am I right thinking that the second (quick) approach can only be used if we do not have an under/over hedge (the amount we need to borrow = the whole number of contracts) ?
