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- March 8, 2017 at 2:45 am #376433
I think goodwill is 11m, cause in my option, the 4m for provision will increase asset and also increase liability, so the net asset is still unchanged.
February 21, 2017 at 2:42 pm #373530After read the whole topic, i understood my same issue, thanks Mike and Lukayl.
January 10, 2017 at 5:23 pm #365966Thanks Mike,
I mean: % of NCI x bases figures (post adjusted profit of subsidiary) = profit attributed to NCI.
For intragroup loan, NCI still earns/charged with their share of finance income/expense on intragroup loans (that means no adjustment related to intragroup loan when calculating NCI)?
And base figures for the nci are (scenario 1) $3,000 and (scenario 2) $3,800 if there are no other adjustment?
January 10, 2017 at 2:36 pm #365938thanks Mike,
In case that the loan is vice versus ( s lend p), does group retained earnings also reduced by $160,000?
and for consolidated statements, assume that there are no other adjustments, is it corrected to say that the base figures for NCI in the case that P lend S is $3,000,000, and in case that S lend P is $3,800,000.
thanks again.
December 20, 2016 at 5:16 pm #364103thank for your answer, now i got it, but i have another question.
when disposal an investment property that transferred from owner-occupied property with a surplus revaluation.
how to treat with that surplus revaluation (transfer to retained earning or remain surplus revaluation account)?
thank in advance.
July 31, 2016 at 3:44 am #330344Thanks for your answer.
May 28, 2016 at 4:14 pm #317758could you tell me why “B” entry in note is included in control account. Thanks
January 30, 2015 at 3:23 pm #224409Now i got it, thank you so much.
January 30, 2015 at 9:32 am #224367so, as your answer we should using cost of asset for cash flow from investing activities when the question provides cost and net book value?
ps: thank you so much for your help.
January 21, 2015 at 5:24 pm #223247Sorry Tutor, cause post in this topic, but in my kit from BPP, B is the given answer and i think it is right cause it will have the effect of reducing the difference when corrected.
i also have a question.
4,600 paid for motor van repairs was correctly treated in the cash book but was credited to motor vehicles asset account.
my work for this error: we need suspense account and entries in suspense account are:
opening balance: debit 9,200
motor vehicles asset account: credit 4600
motor van repairs expense: credit 4600please tell me my answer is right or wrong, when im wrong, tell me why, thank you so much.
January 20, 2015 at 7:43 pm #223123Thank you so much, now i understand. i thought credit note is debit on receivable in this question, so poor.
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