[nimbostar]

over the last few years I have been watching these forums and posted perhaps 1 or 2 posts. The best forum was the “June 2014 results”. I never seen such an amount of speculation. It sent me through an emotional journey with the “NRF ” “ACCA status and changes” and “forbidden links”

Today I have finally finished with my final paper after 3 attempts times each time with a lot of obstacles.

It’s been a pleasure and a long journey. Congratulations to all who passed and to those who are yet to finish, always stay positive no matter how much the odds are stacked against you. This is what carried me through

[nimbostar]

Well, I guess I will be the first to post my failure, was my last paper and second sitting.

Am not surprised but disappointed as it would have been nice to finish and have good summer. We’ll roll on June.

Congratulations to all who passed you and those who finished. Welldone!

[nimbostar]

59% didn’t like this paper at all and didn’t go to classes only used a revision kit, I don’t ever want to see Audit again.

[nimbostar]

Well, 64% not too bad, could have done with a higher mark though, nevertheless, congratulations to all those who passed and to those who didn’t make it, you just need to come back stronger.

[nimbostar]

I am more inclined to say this is a business expenditure as it can be classified under repairs and maintenance.

However I think in reality in can depend on the original state of the property, If the property was bought in a very bad state state and needed a major works, then I would be inclined to say this is a capital expenditure.

[nimbostar]

ahh,

firstly my apologies for my previous post, I sat F6 in December 2010 based on FA2009. However I do understand now. It is the additional 12950 that will have 60%, I have put an example below.

Income 100000 112950
PA 6475
Taxable Income 93525 112950

TAX
20% 7480 7480
40% 22450 30220
TOTAL TAX 29930 37700

Difference in tax 7770

As you can see this is equivalent to 60% of 12950.

[nimbostar]

Hi

your question is a bit vague

First of all, basic rate is 20% up to £37400
the higher rate tax is 40% above £37400, therefore it’s not really 60%. If you are earning 100000, then your tax liability would be calculated as follows

Salary 100000
Personal Allowance 6475
Taxable income 93525

37400 @ 20% 7480
56125 @ 40% 22450
TOTAL 29930

Therefore it is not tax @ 60%.

[nimbostar]

Thanks Atif

Much appreciated.

[nimbostar]

Hi All

I hope it’s not too late for me to join this group. Sat F6 in December and am hoping I have passed, so I can move to F8.

[nimbostar]

Hi Parip

I think you should post your question as not everyone has got the Bpp course test.

I think in general it is items that are “wholly and exclusively” for the purposes of trade. If you post the question I am sure there are plenty of people who will be prepared to help you.

[nimbostar]

Hi All

Only just woken up but couln’t sleep well last night. just want to say goodluck to everyone. I have just checked my results for F9 and have passed with 74%.

am going to catch a bit more sleep, hopefully am not dreaming.

[nimbostar]

Hi

I haven’t read the question thouroughly, however I have noticed you have been given the following info.

growth
cost of capital
dividends

Therefore the formula I would use would be P=(D x(1+g))/Ke-g

Ke=cost of equity
Dividends
g=growth

This formula is derived from calculating your Cost of Equity. Hope this helps.

[Author]

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