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P7 – 54%
P5- 58%First times, affiliate, so glad. Had to re-sit P3 only previous session.
Good luck to everyoneto: brian8820
Q1 a was purely portfolio management, SWOT could probably work, because all the three methods had stenths and weaknessesto: brian8820
Q1 a) Internal Growth; Acqusuition and Strategic alliance approach for the Company in question.Which model did you use in Q3, I was not able to identify any appropriate and just made best logic comments.
<cite>@azenaghiyev said:</cite>
Q1:From the question: The FV of NA of Caller was 990 at 1 June 2011 (When 14% and 70% acquired). But share capital was 800, Retained earnings was 190 and OCE was 52. Total is 800+190+52=1,042. And FV of NA was less than per Calculation (990-1,042). So I decreased the share capital from 800 to 708 as balancing fugure:
Share capital: 708
RE: 190
OCE: 52
FV of land: 40
TOTAL: 990What did you do?</blockquote
I saw that also, but the diff was exactly 52, the amount of other components in equity. I just used 990 as per question. It is not likely that acca have mistaken this but i put down my assumption that i will use 990.<cite>@melindamarchal said:</cite>
Does anyone know what we should have done for the loan and the restructuring costs in q1??.Also, when is the marking scheme out?
For the restructuring I provided plan 1 only and with 14,000 because I excluded the training costs which are not directly related to the restructuring.
<cite>@d38ono said:</cite>
Well I definitely tried my best but as always there were a few bits which I was unsure about. What did everyone do with the following?……1. The loan at a reduced rate
2. The restructuring, did you provide for both plans (excluding training)?
3. Were the segments to be split in question 2a?
4. Did you disclose a contingent liability or not for the damage costs? Then a provision?The loan I discussed in my prior post
I settled provision only for Plan A, because in Plan B there was not approval like to for Plan A where the two factories were identified by the management.The loan issue in Q1a, it had to be treated at amortised cost Ok? so 50+50*6%-50*3%= 51.5 ok?
Currently we have 48.5, thus the diff = 51.5-48.5 = 3 shall be treated Dt RE/ Cr Loan payable =3
The thning is that based on the question this loan was a receivable because we granted the loan to a charity, if so then it would be: 50-50*6%+50*3% = 48.5 but the scenario explicitely said that the loan is presented net of the cash paid (if loan receivable, the cash would have been received) and the loan would be 51.5.
So, I just assumed that it is payable and did it and then in the CSOFP presented it under payables.
Did anyone else noted that or I was just too under time preassure?What about the impairment? I first impaired the goodwill and the residual distributed to PPE?
I also related q1a to PID and business case, the initial phases of the project management.
I think here the point is the relevant and suppoeted discussion, not really the conclusion.
Q1b- used cultural web, q3b used the 6 Is, but for q1a- just identified weeknesses…too confusing
<cite>@jalapeno said:</cite>
The exam was the easiest ACCA exam I have ever taken. Easier than F1, easier than MA1. The questions were not unclear, I presume English is not your first language?? If you study and revise, you gain the marks. If you don’t, you fail. If you don’t read the question then you have no business aspiring to work in finance and accounting where accuracy is critical and the devil is in the detail. (Double facepalm…..)
Ok, I will go back and delete my post, but please keep offenses for youself. I am sitting already P7, so if I pass F9 I will be qualified + I have the experience already. I did not post to argue.
Why in Q1 it was said that the machine was sold after the year 4? Does it make any difference with replaced for example?
<cite> @hassanatcams said:</cite>
Well actually i n calculating the EPS i made a big mistake and its that i deducted the dividend payment from the PAT and then divided the figure by 10m shares. well can any 1 say how many marks wud this mistake cost?I have the impression that this examiner does not give ANY points if you have mistaken something. My last sitting I had 48 points and I was expecting above 55 based on the marking scheme published, so I don’t think he awards any mark for partially done thing.
In Q1 I also wrote about the shareholders’ welath maximization and linked it by calculating the profitability index of the new investment NPV/Investment = around 80% due to the high NPV.
I also wrote about the liquidity issue but I did not link it to the profitable investment because I could not think how.<cite></cite>
When are the solutions usually published do you know?On the ACCA website but they will not be published soon. They will upload the questions sooner and the solutions are published close to the results announcement.
<cite> @united26 said:</cite>
Can anyone remember the marks for Ac’s recievable Management factors? I mixed it up with Working Cap financing- really annoying me cos I had the right answer learned off a few times over beforehand but think just panicked when seen it and got mixed up.6 marks
What rate did you use to discount the Y3 share price to the current price value?
First two years dividends were suspended, so I applied the dividend growth model for Y3, got the share price in Y3 and discounted it to it’s current price value. I used the 3% rate which was the current dividend growth, I could have used the cost of equity, I am not sure.
How did you do that?<cite>@leogr said:</cite>
i agree with you! fmh was 298000+ and mmh was 296000+
because it was a receipt prefer FMHI got exactly the same, forward is more favourable to market one.
How did you deal with the 18% return on the investments in Option 2 and Option 3? I did not know what to do with that and I did not use it!? But I am sure I am wrong.
Wow, Thank you so much for telling us this!!!
Last year’s layout of these forums was not at all like now!? and we were able to upload and downloan documents, I can’t believe they spoiled it in that way!!