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- November 8, 2015 at 11:40 am #281116
sir, can you please enter to this as well
November 5, 2015 at 2:59 am #280558The Small Pools WDA
Where the tax wdv of either the main pool or special rate pool prior to calculating the WDA is less than £1,000, the entire balance may be taken as a WDA in that period. The £1,000 is prorated if the accounting period is other than 12 months.if you see example 2 of chapter 5, the motor car is sold leaving a balancing allowance of 4,200. the accounting period is 12 month and the capital allowance is the 70% of the full balancing allowance. if the car wasn’t used for the private use, the capital allowance would be the full amount of 4,200.
so, i guess the same must be applied to the practice question no.11. the scenario is the same, accounting period is of 12 months and after selling the motor car it leaves a balancing allowance. the only difference is in example 2 the car was partly used for private use and in practice question no.11. the car is fully used for business purpose.
May 13, 2014 at 4:10 am #168604Thanks, next time i shall write the question. 🙂 🙂
May 12, 2014 at 11:42 am #168461Sorry, i habe understood i just got confused
May 12, 2014 at 11:30 am #168458Why is it not treated as mid year acquistion?
May 12, 2014 at 11:26 am #168457Thanks a lot, i have got it clear
November 28, 2013 at 6:41 am #148166no 🙁
November 15, 2013 at 3:16 am #146102yes Sir, very clear. Thank you for help 🙂
June 4, 2013 at 9:03 pm #129198thank you Sir, for the help.
May 31, 2013 at 3:48 am #127931thanks for the solution..I got the clear view now. Thankyou very much Sir.
May 30, 2013 at 4:00 am #127744Sir, can you please teach the above question now.
May 29, 2013 at 5:41 pm #127672for example: inorder to obtain sufficient evidence auditor procedure before or after inventory count during final audit. is it necessary to write the audit procedure in a sequence or can v write randomly ?
May 26, 2013 at 5:49 pm #127245Thankyou.
May 26, 2013 at 8:03 am #127207My question is from Kaplan Revision Kit, Question No. 35 ASOP CO.(DEC 09)
the question doesn’t state whether the licence fee is tax allowable or not. But, in solution part (a) there has been taken tax saving on the licence fee.
In part (b) the question ask for calculating NPV. in solution half of the calculation has been done at Discount factor of 11% and the half portion is taken from part (a) which has been calculated at the discount factor of 6 %. why ?
what if I do the part (b) calculation entirely taking D.F of 11%?
May 22, 2013 at 7:26 am #126629thankyou Sir, for your help.
In question no. 34, Basril, from kaplan revision kit. the PI is calculated taking PV of the savings divided by investment. but the formula of PI in the book is given NPV divided by Investment.
the left over capital is also not utilised as according to text book, why ? as the left over capital need to be multiplied by PI, its not done in revision kit.
May 21, 2013 at 3:54 pm #126513Sir, when is the licence fee of 0.5M annually be deducted?
May 21, 2013 at 8:10 am #126420how to treat with the licence fee and the investment in working capital ?
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