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Thank you sir…!

[najiharmmed786@gmail.com]

Thanks for the explanation sir..!

But isn’t Alpha Co purchasing Material X from an outside supplier, so why are they even considering EBQ.

Shouldn’t EOQ be used when we are purchasing Material X instead of producing it on our own ???

[najiharmmed786@gmail.com]

Thank you.

Wishing you a wonderful weekend!

[najiharmmed786@gmail.com]

Thanks a lot sir.

Also just to be safe ,is it ok to use the Kaplan model of High low method in case of stepped fixed cost and change in variable cost per unit from an exam point of view.

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This is a question from ACCA Purchased Mock (Set of 3) Sep 23- Aug24

(Qn No 5 from 3rd Purchased Mock).

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Thanks sir..!

I hope I am not stealing your valuable time by posting too many questions in this forum.

I would really like to express my sincere gratitude for your patience in explaining each and every question that we students post. I personally am truly greatful for your guidance throughout this academic journey.

A big thanks to the whole OPENTUITION TEAM.

Hope to learn from you more !

[najiharmmed786@gmail.com]

Thanks for your explanation sir.

This question is from FA Sep 23 – Aug 24 Practice Test No 3.

By charging the obsolete items seperately against gross profit, does it mean it is treated as IMPAIRMENT LOSS ?

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Thank you sir..

[najiharmmed786@gmail.com]

Your explanation in arriving at the figure of 25000 is clear.

Isn’t DIVIDEND on Ordinary Shares issued by a company a distrubution of profits rather than a CHARGE in SOPL?

So is there really a need to apply ACCRUALS basis in order to arrive at that figure?

[najiharmmed786@gmail.com]

Thanks a lot sir.

Really appreciate it!

[najiharmmed786@gmail.com]

Thank you sir.

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Thanks again for the clarification sir.

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Hi sir..

Could you please check on the above question if you are free.

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Thank you so much sir.

Really appreciate it !

[najiharmmed786@gmail.com]

Thanks for the info..

[najiharmmed786@gmail.com]

I found this qn on ACCA Study Hub.

The provided answer is Option C

Their explanation is as follows:

Opening inventory is a debit balance that is charged to cost of sales as an expense.

Closing inventory is included twice as a debit and credit to reflect that it is included in the statement of profit or loss and other comprehensive income and the statement of financial position.

It doesn’t seem to make any sense to me.

Could you please clarify if the qn is incorrectly worded..

Thanks in advance…!

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Thanks for the clarification.

[najiharmmed786@gmail.com]

Yes sir, I cross checked and the question I copied is same.

It seems that I overlooked that part where they say Lime is the one who made the error.

As you pointed out , if Lime made the error, the options provided does not seem to give a correct answer.

Also ,I checked the kaplan website but I couldn’t find anything useful.

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Thank you so much sir…

[najiharmmed786@gmail.com]

Thanks a lot sir..!

Really appreciate your time and efforts. Hope to learn more from you..

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Thank you sir. Really appreciate your prompt reply.

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