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Thank you so much for your help.
Yes, I watched your lectures but these queries came up out of curiosity.
Once again thank you and your Opentuition team
Ok.
So if the asset’s useful life gets over in the 4th year, do we then write off from the books in the 5th year?
Thank you.
And I would like to confirm:
If the asset was bought at 5th Jan 2016 and again same year end as at 31.3.2020 and useful life of 4 years then:There won’t be any depreciation charge during the year 2020 as the useful life got over in 2019
Please confirm.
Ok.
So at least I’m on the right track.
If the client hasn’t received the funds yet from the director, is it appropriate to write off the balance?
I don’t think it is appropriate. Is it?
Please suggest your views on this.Thank you for your response.
But we want to clear off the assets in the books.
In order to clear it off, depreciation would be computed and netted off..
Or correct me if I’m wrong.
Yes, I’ll check your lectures.
Oh..
I understand where the problem came.
I’m using the BPP kit (of previous version) so it didn’t contain this table.
Upon looking at this question online from other sources, is when I saw the table in the question.
Thank you Sir.
Ok. I agree with you that its stated in the case ‘Marco has scheduled 40 courses next year.’
But I don’t understand how the figures 150,210,etc were arrived at?
Please help.
Thank you.
So it means that it is not part of international syllabus?
However I saw one question on it from the latest kit.
So there are chances to be examinable again?
Thank you very much for your response @jetavi
Your response to my query inspired me.
And I’m trying my best on staying determined and focused when it comes to studying.
I really hope it gives best results especially when you are working full time.
Thank you once again!
Hello!
I am not able to access this link.
It shows that this site can’t be reached.
Sorry I was confusing myself.
I understood where I went wrong.
Thank you for your help Sir.
Don’t we multiply/divide the exercise price somewhere in the solution?
This is because I had followed your steps in solving CMC Revision lecture.
I had come to understand to take the difference of:
WORST OUTCOME amount multiplied or divide the exercise price
(-)
The amount needed= this would equal to under/overhedged amount multiplied or divided by the forward rate.
Please help me clear my doubts.
Thank you.
Ok…but I don’t get it regarding the subsidized benefit.
This is because as per my understanding, subsidized benefit is the amount which you save i.e the difference between the rate at which you’ll likely to be paying and the rate at which government grants to the company. So in my opinion, the government usually grants a lower interest rate compared to the normal rate, hence likely to create savings for the company.
(Correct me if I’m wrong anywhere).Now as per our Burung case, it says that the company is being lent the money at a rate of 100 basis points (i.e 1%) below the 10 year government debt yield rate of 2.5%.
So isn’t 1% to be used as a subsidized benefit? This is because the 1% is the savings you’ll generate.
Kindly correct me if I could be going wrong.
Thank you.
1)I usually check on student accountant for any latest standard issue taking place, but can’t find any.
(Can you please guide me to the steps to find any new standard, if at all they have been issued).
2)For IFRS 15 and IFRS 16 standards, you mean to say they have been updated recently?
Thank you very much.
