[Marimar]

yes me I failed second time with 44% 🙁

[Marimar]

Sorry this was for John the tutor to answer not us oppps 🙂

[Marimar]

P=a-bQ
b=change in price/change in demand therefore $30/10000 units
$200=a-$30/10000×100000 units
a=$500
P=500-0.003Q
a=price when Q=0
MR=a-2bQ
$8(variable cost per unit)=$500-(0.003)x2Q
$500-$8/0.006=Q=82000 units
P=a-bQ
P=$500-0.003×82000 units
P=$500-246=$254

[Marimar]

Hello John Moffat,

Can you please on the other question regarding same variance but with idle 330 hours? I cant remember what the question was but the answer was £2842 Adverse.

I cant figure it out.

Thanks
Maria

[Author]

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