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- March 5, 2018 at 9:42 am #440281
Great, thank you for such a quick response!!
March 4, 2018 at 9:37 pm #440223Perfect, thanks Ken!
March 3, 2016 at 4:30 pm #303268Hi Mike,
Thanks for getting back to me. Unless I’m missing it. This is the answerFV of net asset
Shares 9000
Ret ear 19000
FV 3000
DT Liab (1000)
Total 30000Cons ret ears workings
Per Q 27000
Less Pre acq (19000)
8000
depn of fv (600)Then that’s it they get “our share” of 7400
Unless I’m missing something… ??
February 29, 2016 at 11:29 am #302601I think I may see where I am looking at it wrong, I thought $740k was period specific but it just looks like that is costs incurred to date not actual period specific costs.
February 29, 2016 at 11:10 am #302598Hi Mike,
When I was trying to work out the profit recognised, I had calculated it as follows
2.8m x 35% = 980
P specific (740)
1.4m x 35% (490)
Loss (250)Why did they not get a percentage of the revenue and total costs?
Am I reading the question wrong?February 6, 2016 at 2:18 pm #299495Hi Mike, I have read and watched everything up to chapter 9 and was practicing the mini questions then.
Sorry I hadn’t got to those notes.Thanks again for your time.
January 18, 2016 at 8:30 am #295601I passed with 67% second attempt, thanks open tuition!
December 9, 2015 at 8:11 pm #289938Hi John,
Just to clarify one other thing. If in the question it says: the dividend is about to be paid would we take this as D1 when using the dividend growth model? And if it has just been paid is it the D0?Thanks
December 9, 2015 at 7:58 pm #289932@johnmoffat said:
Yu Huey’s answer to the first question is correct.With regard to the second question:
The dividend growth rate is fourth root of (24/20.51) – 1 = 0.04, i.e. 4%
The shareholders required rate of return = 3% + (0.5 x 8%) = 7%
The dividend just paid is 24cIf you put these in the dividend growth model formula you get a market value per share of $8.32. Therefore a total market value of 4M x 8.32 = $33.28M
Hi John,
Just to clarify, there is four years growth because the dividend has just been paid. If it were about to be paid would it be 3 years growth.
I know this sounds like a really stupid question but I just want to make sure I have it clear in my head!Thanks in advance!
December 9, 2015 at 6:22 pm #289851I actually think I got it now. Would you get the Fourth root of the fraction because it is only inflated for 3 months?
December 9, 2015 at 6:13 pm #289840HI Skgoh5101,
I am not sure if you figured out the answer but this was baffling me as well .The scrap value is an additional inflow. I was netting the €20,000 off each other in year 4 when the total cash inflow should be €40000December 8, 2015 at 4:41 pm #289096Hi John,
That is no problem, I will check that out. Thanks!February 8, 2015 at 8:17 am #226478Passed with 58% couldn’t have done it without Open Tuition!
February 8, 2015 at 8:14 am #226473Passed and got 68% Yay! Happy with that 🙂
December 1, 2014 at 10:59 pm #215630I’ve just realised I’ve done the same thing! I’m pretty sure they give marks for calculations and workings though.. I doubt if they award no marks at all?
November 29, 2014 at 4:52 pm #214466I couldn’t understand how they got the answer, but I see you now answered it on someone elses thread.
Thanks
November 29, 2014 at 4:45 pm #214462When I see it now, I don’t why in the world it was confusing me so much, as up until now I had understood Target cost gaps. Thanks very much John for all your help!
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