[liz77]

And one more question.
Referring to Question “Ashanthi” Q41 in the BPP revision kit,
How come when calculating the profit from Associate they use 30% even those it is the subsidiary who has 30%, and therefore the true effective control is 21%. Aren’t we supposed to use the parent’s effective control % ??

Thanks!

[liz77]

And also, in that question it limits the revaluation to the previous impairment. But i thought we should only limit it to impairments incurred from the time of classification (but according to the question the asset had been impaired prior to classification)…

I’d really appreciate an answer coz I’m currently so confused!

[liz77]

Passed with 90! Still can’t believe it! 🙂 Thanks OT!

[liz77]

But in the OT notes chapter 8 example 1 – the relevant cost of labour was taken to be the contribution excluding labour (i.e 150 – (100 – 40) where 150 is sales, 100 prime cost and 40 is wages)

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