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Hi Sir,
Thank you so much for your explanation. May I ask could you give me a example that states the rule where the performance is to a third party it becomes sufficient and valid? Because I am not sure of what this actually applied to.
Man thanks!
Regards
Chen
Hello Sir, it is on the BPP exercise book section 4 question 11. The question asked which statement regards to consideration is correct and the answer chose “Performance of an existing contractual duty to a third party is sufficient consideration for the promise of additional reward.” I felt it is not correct and the option I selected is “performance of an extra service in addition to an existing contractual duty is not sufficient consideration for the promise of additional reward.”
Morning Sir, thank you for your reply. I just found out it has the same copy in BPP. It is the Sep. 2016 CBE question 11 and question 13.
Thank you so much and sorry for not making the time clear.
Hello and thank you so much for your reply! Just another question (sounds ridiculous), would it be the same if the offeree accepts the offer for buying the car and turns out the offeree passed away and will contract end or still continue?
Thank you sir and yes I did go through the online lecture note. I think I made the mistake by mixing example 6 from chapter 14 with this question. So we can either compare the standard input with the actual yield or compare the actual and budget yield straight away?
Thanks a lot for your explanation sir, I think I misunderstood the meaning of the question previously.
Thank you so much for the explanation! So does that mean under this example, the exchange allowance is 1000?
Many thanks sir, but I didn’t quite understand the last sentence you mentioned. Since would the amount of excess depreciation from revaluation reserve could be treated as dividend? Is it just how the rule settled?
Thanks a lot sir. I just rewatched the lecture and there are just too many things easy to forget so sorry to ask the repeated question. And sorry to bother you with another question about phablets ledger. The question provided that a supplier’s account in the payable ledger with a debit balance of 800 has been included on the list of payables as a credit balance. But when it comes to calculate the closing balance in payables ledger account, it didn’t include this term. May I ask why is that the case? Many thanks for your explanation!
Thanks for the explanation, so fix production cost as an expense should less the depreciation which is the actual amount we need to pay for the month. Am I right sir?